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balu736 [363]
3 years ago
9

Liability of foreignness is the inherent disadvantage experienced by foreign firms in host countries because of their non-native

status.True / False.
Business
1 answer:
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

True

Explanation:

It is an inherent disadvantage that foreign firms experience in the host country because of non-native status. It is considered as liability of foreignness as foreign companies are well versed with the cultural difference, tax policies and people´s response to the product and services produced, therefore foreign companies need to invest resources to learn the technique of business in different country.

To have competitive advantage in the foreign market, the companies should have organized resources, cost to compete and capabilities to offset the liability of foreignness.

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Which type of training would be considered vocational training?
sergij07 [2.7K]
It is training that you need for a career that you want to do and you go there during high school to do the training
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3 years ago
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Natalie is using Monster and CareerBuilder in her job search. These sites are examples of ________.
lorasvet [3.4K]

Answer:

General purpose Job boards

Explanation:

A job board can be straightforwardly defines as a website where employers advertise job openings for job seekers

A general purpose job board as seen in the question can be defined as a website that offers job recruitment services in its entirety.

This means that both employees and employers use the site to search for and advertise job openings to job seekers respectively. Popular job boards include Glassdoor, Linkedin, etc.

Cheers.

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3 years ago
Which of the examples provides the best evidence that inflation has occurred? A person whose salary has decreased is able to pur
vladimir2022 [97]

Answer:

A person whose salary has increased is able to purchase fewer goods and services.

Explanation:

Inflation is characterized by an increase in the prices of goods and services along with a reduction in the purchasing power.

Real income of an individual refers to the income which has been adjusted for the effects of inflation. Whereas, Nominal income refers to the income which is before any such adjustment for inflation.

In the given case, the nominal income has increased i.e if we ignore inflation. But while considering inflation, the real income of the individual has reduced evidenced by the fact that the purchasing power has reduced.

7 0
3 years ago
Us federal income tax is progressive by law, but which best explains why is it sometimes regressive in practice?
Solnce55 [7]
I believe the answer is: High-income earners use tax laws to their advantage to reduce their tax rates

High income earners tend to possess financial knowledge or ability to allow experts who understand the full scope of taxation laws and how to recorded the transactions in a way that make it eligible for tax deduction. This makes a lot of high income earners manage to avoid paying taxes even if they manage to obtain a lot of profit.
3 0
3 years ago
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Were you to have information about the salaries of various levels of employees in each company, what would you use (mean, median
Usimov [2.4K]

We will use median to calculate various level of salaries of different employees.

Every individual has incomes and expenditures and some savings for the purpose of preparation of budget. Calculation of wealth can differ accordingly as wealth of the different employees would be different as per their earning.

There would be different employees in each company and taking out calculations on the basis of mean would not give any final result. Mode is the result of expected outcomes and will not give exact results. Hence, median would not be affected by small or large numbers so median would give exact results.

To learn more about median here,

brainly.com/question/21396105

#SPJ4

3 0
2 years ago
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