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djverab [1.8K]
3 years ago
11

How to prove two equations have infinite solutions?

Mathematics
1 answer:
laiz [17]3 years ago
6 0
To prove two equations have infinite solutions, you have to prove that those two equations are the same equations, but in a different form.

For example: Prove the equations are infinite
5y=2x+7
10y=4x+14
If you multiply the first equation by 2, and substitiute any of the numbers, you will get 0=0
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A dollar bill is worth _____ pennies. When written in decimal format, each penny can be written as ______ of a dollar. 100:10 10
erik [133]
Hey there! :D

A dollar bill is worth 100 pennies. 

$1.00-> .01*100 <=== same thing

When written in decimal format, each penny can be written as 100:1, because there are 100 pennies in a dollar. One penny would just be one out of 100. 

I hope this helps!
~kaikers
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Factor this expression 27 + 33
Yuri [45]
3(9+11)
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6 0
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A
Roman55 [17]

Anser: Brooo

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
CALCULUS: For the function whose values are given in the table below, the integral from 0 to 6 of f(x)dx is approximated by a Re
ladessa [460]

The table gives values of <em>f(x)</em> at various <em>x</em> in the interval [0, 6], and you have to use them to approximate the definite integral,

∫₀⁶ <em>f(x)</em> d<em>x</em>

with a left-endpoint sum using 3 intervals of width 2. This means you have to

• split up [0, 6] into 3 subintervals of equal length, namely [0, 2], [2, 4], and [4, 6]

• take the left endpoints of these intervals and the values of <em>f(x)</em> these endpoints, so <em>x</em> ∈ {0, 2, 4} and <em>f(x)</em> ∈ {0, 0.48, 0.84}

• approximate the area under <em>f(x)</em> on [0, 6] with the sum of the areas of rectangles with dimensions 2 × <em>f(x)</em> (that is, width = 2 and height = <em>f(x)</em> for each rectangle)

So the Riemann sum is

∫₀⁶ <em>f(x)</em> d<em>x </em>≈ 2 ∑ <em>f(x)</em>

for <em>x</em> ∈ {0, 2, 4}, which is about

∫₀⁶ <em>f(x)</em> d<em>x </em>≈ 2 (0 + 0.48 + 0.84) = 2.64

making the answer A.

7 0
3 years ago
What is the aquare root of 200​
Anton [14]

Answer:

=10\sqrt{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplify the radical by breaking the radicand up into a product of known factors.

Like this :

5 0
3 years ago
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