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tigry1 [53]
3 years ago
12

A box has a square base with an area of 16 sq.in. Its is 14 inches tall. what is the volume?

Mathematics
1 answer:
babunello [35]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

224 inches cubed.

Step-by-step explanation:

Because the area of a square is 16 square inches, the side length is 4 inches. This is because a square's formula for area is the side squared.

Since the box is 14 inches tall, we multiply 4 inches by 4 inches by 14 inches. This means the answer is 224 inches cubed.

We also notice we don't need a measurement for the base sides, we only need to multiply the area by the height.

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vredina [299]

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5 0
3 years ago
Help me please, you get 50 points. This is easy I just need help
pentagon [3]

Fraction -> Decimal

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1/8 = 0.125

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0.22 * 100% = 22%

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Percent -> Fraction

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8 0
3 years ago
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Rainbow [258]

Answer:

a) Just add 1 square on the right and 1 square on top for figure 4. Add 1 more in each place for figure 5.

b) Each stage adds a square above and a square to the right. The pattern never decreases. This trend is shown by figures 1, 2, and 3.

c) Figure 0 would be a single square. Simply follow the pattern in reverse. As the figure number decreases, squares are removed from the right and the top rather than added.

8 0
3 years ago
Nick is now seven times as old as Harry. In 6 years, Nick will be five times as old as Harry. How old will Harry be in 6 years?
Deffense [45]

Answer:

7x+6 = 5(x+6)

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x represents Harry's age now, so 7x represents Nick's age now. (Nick is 7 times as old as Harry.)

In 6 years, Harry's age will be x+6.

In 6 years, Nick's age will be 7x+6, which is 5 times Harry's age at that time, 5(x+6). Hence an appropriate equation is ...

... 7x+6 = 5(x+6)

_____

Please note that finding the value of x does not give the answer to the question. We are asked for Harry's age in 6 years, so the answer is x+6 (=18).

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g
Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

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k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

\binom{n}{k} is the binomial coefficient

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\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}

therefore, for this questions we have:

\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%

4 0
3 years ago
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