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Lynna [10]
3 years ago
8

A machine makes errors in a certain operation with probability p. There are two types of errors. The fraction of errors that are

type 1 is α, and type 2 is 1 - α.(a) What is the probability of k errors in n operations?(b) What is the probability of k1 type 1 errors in n operations?(c) What is the probability of k2 type 2 errors in n operations?(d) What is the joint probability of k1 and k2 type 1 and 2 errors, respectively, in n operations?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Crank3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The concept of binomial probability is applied.

Mathematically from binomial probability ; (nCx)px(1−p)(n-x)

The detailed step by step is as shown in the attachment

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Keeping in mind that for a cost C(x) and profit P(x) and revenue R(x), the marginal cost, marginal profit and marginal revenue are respectively dC/dx, dP/dx and dR/dx, then

\bf P(x)=0.03x^2-3x+3x^{0.8}-4400
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\cfrac{dP}{dx}=0.06x-3+\cfrac{2.4}{\sqrt[5]{x}}

\bf a)\qquad 
\cfrac{dP}{dx}=0.06(200)-3+ \cfrac{2.4}{\sqrt[5]{200}}
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b)\qquad \cfrac{dP}{dx}=0.06(2000)-3+\cfrac{2.4}{\sqrt[5]{2000}}
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c)\qquad \cfrac{dP}{dx}=0.06(5000)-3+\cfrac{2.4}{\sqrt[5]{5000}}
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3 0
3 years ago
Write the linear equation
valina [46]

Answer:

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6 0
3 years ago
. Kite QRST has a short diagonal of QS and a long diagonal of RT. The diagonals intersect at point P. Side QR = 17m, diagonal QS
trapecia [35]

Answer:

495 meter²

Step-by-step explanation:

In the given kite QRST,

PQ = PS = 15 meter

QR = 17 meter

We have to find the area of the kite.

Since kite is in the form of a rhombus.

and rhombus is = \frac{1}{2}  (Diagonal QS) × (Diagonal RT)

In Δ QRP,

17² = 15² + RP²

\sqrt{17^{2}-15^{2}} = RP

RP=\sqrt{289-225}

= √64 = 8 meters.

So RT = RP + PT = 8 + 25 = 33 meter.

Now area of kite = \frac{1}{2} (30) (33) = 495 meter²

6 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me on this question
matrenka [14]
What's the question??
5 0
3 years ago
Stacy is having a party. She puts 6 six-packs of diet soda in a cooler for her guests. At the end of theparty, she finds that 8
andreev551 [17]
So since each pack has 6 packs we need to multiple. 6x8= 48.

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For the lowest term, it would be 1/6 for 8/48 and 5/24 for 40/48.

Good luck with your studies! <3
8 0
2 years ago
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