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hodyreva [135]
3 years ago
12

A ladder 17 feet long is leaning against a wall. The bottom of the ladder is 8 feet from the base of the wall. How far up the wa

ll is the top of the ladder?

Mathematics
1 answer:
almond37 [142]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: the top of the ladder is 15 feet up the wall

Step-by-step explanation:

The attached photo shows the triangle ABC formed by the ladder and the wall. It is a right angle triangle because one of its angles is 90 degrees. The ladder is the hypotenuse of the triangle. To determine how far up the wall that the top of the ladder is,we would find BC by applying Pythagoras theorem

Hypotenuse^2 = opposite ^2 + adjacent^2

17^2 + 8^2 + BC^2

BC^2 = 289 - 64 = 225

BC = √225 = 15

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Karolina [17]
It would be B, an acute scalene. It would be B because all 3 sides are different.
5 0
3 years ago
Angle A and angle B are complementary angles. If m∡a = 4x and m∡b = 3x +13, what is the measure of the smaller angle?
bagirrra123 [75]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Complementary angles mean two two angles sum with equal 90 degrees. Therefore you would need to create an equation to solve for the value of x.

4x+3x+13=90

-13 -13

7x=77

/7 /7

X=11

Now plug in the value of x.

A=4(11) B=3(11)+13

A=44. B=33+13

B=46

Angle a is the smaller angle and measures at 44°

5 0
2 years ago
2.Solve the system using substitution.
Lena [83]
2x+2y=38
y=x+3

First you would substitute the y for x+3
2x+2(x+3)=38

You would multiply the 2 by the x+3
2x+2x+6=38

Add the 2x and the 2x
4x+6=38

Subtract the 6 on both sides
4x=32

Divide the 4 on both sides
x=8

Now substitute the x in the second problum for 8
y=8+3

Add the 8 and the 3 to solve for y
y=11

Your answers
x=8
y=11
the correct answer would be A:(8,11)
3 0
2 years ago
You pick a card at random. Without putting the first card back, you
Inga [223]

First, we need the probability of picking an odd number.

There are 5 cards in total, and 3 odd cards (3, 5, and 7).

That means that the probability that we'll draw an odd card would be \frac{3}{5}.

Then, we have 4 cards left, and 2 even cards (4 and 6), meaning that the probability that we draw an even card will be \frac{2}{4} or \frac{1}{2}.

To find the probability that these would happen in consecutive draws, we just multiply the probabilities together.

\frac{3}{5}*\frac{1}{2}=\frac{3}{10} or 0.3.

To convert this into a percentage, we multiply the decimal by 100.

0.3*100=30.

So the probability of picking an odd number and then picking an even number is 30%.

Hope this helps!

8 0
2 years ago
Elena and Diego each wrote an equation to represent the diagram. Elena wrote 35+w+41=180. Diego wrote 35+w=180.which equation do
Masteriza [31]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

i need to see the diagram, to help you

6 0
2 years ago
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