Answer:
E. Deep venous thrombosis
Step-by-step explanation:
According to a different source, these are the options that come with this question:
A. Depression
B. Smoking history
C. Severe nausea on combined oral contraceptives
D. Lactation history
E. Deep venous thrombosis
This woman would be a good candidate for the progestin-only pill because of her deep venous thrombosis, as contraindications to estrogen include a history of thromboembolic disease. Other contraindications include women who are lactating, women over 35 who smoke or women that have experienced severe nausea when using combined pills.
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Answer:
<h2>
n = <u>
-3</u></h2>
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
the 2nd one. I got it correct
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
3x
Step-by-step explanation:
