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Alenkinab [10]
3 years ago
5

If variable manufacturing overhead is applied on the basis of direct labor-hours and the variable overhead rate variance is favo

rable, then: Garrison 16e Rechecks 2017-08-17 Multiple Choice
the actual variable overhead rate exceeded the standard rate.
the standard variable overhead rate exceeded the actual rate.
the standard direct labor-hours allowed for the actual output exceeded the actual hours.
None of the above
Business
1 answer:
lozanna [386]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Variable overhead rate variance=Actual overhead costs-(actual hours*Standard rate)

Given the variable overhead rate variance is favourable that means the actual overhead rate is less than the standard overhead rate.

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Can u solve this plsss​
Inessa [10]

The main reason why the Japanese liberalized the bank mergers in Japan was to protect the economy and prevent an economic crash.

<h3>What is Financial Liberalization?</h3>

This refers to the removal of regulatory control in the financial sector to promote economic growth.

The government of Japan faced an economic crash that threatened to cripple the economy due to stock market crash, failing banks, etc and there was the use of risk-based capital to try and prevent this, amongst other solutions.

Hence, we can see that the key aspects of the liberalization program were:

  • Mergers
  • Acquisitions.

The key criticism of the program is that it failed to address the scale of the problem and the solution was only short-term.

Read more about financial liberalization here:

brainly.com/question/26948358

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
Ibram Corporation had 200,000 shares of $1 par value common stock outstanding. If Ibram announces a 4-for-1 stock split, the par
LenaWriter [7]

Answer:

Post split Shares: 800,000

Post split par value: $0.25

Explanation:

Stock split seeks to increase the number of shares available for trading on the exchange thus increasing the liquidity. Stock split of 4 for 1 increases the shares by 4 times e.g. every holder of 1 share will receive total of 4 new shares. Thus the shares will increase to 4 times: (200,000 * 4) = 800,000.

Post split share price is calculated by dividing par value to the proposed split.

($1 / 4) = $0.25 per share.

3 0
3 years ago
On October 1, 2015, Zircon Jewelry Company accepted a 4-month, 10% note for $2,400 in settlement of an overdue account receivabl
Whitepunk [10]

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

Cash A/c Dr $2,480

         To Interest receivable $60

         To Interest revenue $20

         To Note receivable $2,400

(Being the collection of funds is recorded)

The computation of interest receivable is shown below:

= Principal × rate of interest × number of months ÷ (total number of months in a year)  

= $2,400 × 10% × (3 months ÷ 12 months)

= $60

And for interest revenue would be

= Principal × rate of interest × number of months ÷ (total number of months in a year)  

= $2,400 × 10% × (1 months ÷ 12 months)

= $20

7 0
3 years ago
There are a few people in line waiting to be served. you are taking care of one customer and she insists you gave her the incorr
Leto [7]
You enforce the rules, state you did correctly count the amount of money, no exceptions.
5 0
3 years ago
vSelected financial data for The Portland Porcelain Works Coffee Mug Division is as​ follows: Sales $ 2 comma 000 comma 000 Oper
ioda

Answer:

Capital turnover = 2.5 times

Explanation:

given data

Sales =  $2,000,000

Operating income = $400,000

Total assets = $800,000

Current liabilities = $120,000

Target rate of return = 13​%

Weighted average cost of capital = 6​%

to find out

Portland Porcelain Works Coffee Mug Division capital​ turnover

solution

we get here Portland Porcelain Works Coffee Mug Division capital turnover that is find here by dividing sales by total assets

so

Capital turnover = \frac{sales}{total\ assets}     ......................1

put here value

Capital turnover = \frac{2,000,000}{800,000}

Capital turnover = 2.5 times

5 0
3 years ago
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