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aleksley [76]
3 years ago
8

Suppose autos cost consumers $30,000 and trucks cost consumers $15,000. What contribution does the production of 200 autos and 2

00 trucks make to the GDP
Business
1 answer:
alexgriva [62]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

the  contribution made to the production of 200 autos and 200 trucks is $9,000,000

Explanation:

The computation of the contribution made to the production of 200 autos and 200 trucks is shown below

Contribution to GDP is

= $30,000 × 200 + $15,000 × 200

= $6,000,000 + $3,000,000

= $9,000,000

Hence, the  contribution made to the production of 200 autos and 200 trucks is $9,000,000

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How might increasing the level of government transfers reduce the size of the economic pie? check all that apply?
maksim [4K]
Since the increasing level of government transfers only transfers the wealth without actual creation of goods/services, Higher taxes may be necessary to finance increased transfer payments, leading to a reduction in hours worked because of a decrease in the reward for productive activity. Not only that, <span>.Greater transfer activity diverts productive resources into rent-seeking activity</span>
8 0
2 years ago
Steinberg Corporation and Dietrich Corporation are identical companies except that Dietrich is more levered. Both companies will
valentina_108 [34]

Answer:

a-1.

Steinberg's debt:

Steinberg's equity:

a-2.

Dietrich's debt:

Dietrich's equity:

b. Disagree as the values of the two companies are the same ( please see below Explanation for further clarification)

Explanation:

It is clear to determine that the value of debt and equity of the two firms is the present value of cash flow received in 1 year, discounted at 12%.

a-1.

In one year:

- Debt holder of Steinberg will receive $910,000 regardless of its EBIT. -=> Thus, Steinberg's debt present value = 910,000 / 1.12 = $812,500

- Given the probability of expansion and recession, Steinberg's shareholder will receive the amount equal EBIT -  amount paid to its debt holders: 0.8 x (3,700,000 - 910,000) + 0.2 x (1,100,000-910,000) = $2,270,000.

=> Thus, Steinberg's equity present value = $2,270,000/ 1.12 = $2,026,786

=> Value of Steinberg = D+E = 812,500 + 2,026,786 = $2,839,286 ( note: no tax applied)

a-2.

In one year:

- Debt holder of Dietrich will receive $1,200,000 when the business expands while only $1,100,000 when the business goes into recession (i.e business loss is 100,000):  0.8 x 1,200,000 + 0.2 x 1,100,000 = $1,180,000

=> Thus, Dietrich's debt present value = 1,180,000 / 1.12 = $1,053,571

- Given the probability of expansion and recession, Dietrich's shareholder will receive the amount equal EBIT -  amount paid to its debt holders: 0.8 x (3,700,000 - 1,200,000) + 0.2 x (1,100,000-1,100,000) = $2,000,000.

=> Thus, Dietrich's equity present value = 2,000,000 / 1.12 = $1,785,714

=> Value of Steinberg = D+E =$1,053,571+$1,785,714  = $2,839,286( note: no tax applied)

a-3.

From the calculation, it is clear that the values of the two companies are the same.

6 0
3 years ago
Pineapple Motor Company manufactures two types of speciality electric motors, a commercial motor and a residential motor, throug
Usimov [2.4K]

Answer:

a. Single Plant wide  Factory Overhead  Rate = $ 140 per machine hour

Overhead Rate of  Assembly Department $ 120 per machine hour

Overhead Rate of  Testing Department=    $ 150 per unit per machine hour.

Total Overhead per Unit    Commercial  $ 588      Residential $  462      

Explanation:

Pineapple Motor Company

Assembly Department  Factory Overhead 360,000

Testing Department  Factory Overhead 900,000

Total  Factory Overhead 1,260,000

Direct machine hours were estimated as follows:

Assembly Department 3,000 hours

Testing Department 6,000

Total 9,000 hours

                                      Commercial              Residential

Assembly Department       1.4 dmh                    1.1 dmh

Testing Department             2.8                           2.2

Total machine hours per unit 4.2 dmh           3.3 dmh

Single Plant wide  Factory Overhead  Rate = Total  Factory Overhead 1,260,000/Total 9,000 hours

a. Single Plant wide  Factory Overhead  Rate = $ 140 per machine hour

Overhead Allocated to Assembly Department = No of Hours * Rate

                      = 3000  * $ 140 = $ 420,000

Overhead Allocated to Testing Department = No of Hours * Rate

                      = 6000  * $ 140 = $ 840,000

b. Overhead Rate of  Assembly Department = Factory Overhead / Machine Hours= 360,000/3,000 hours = $ 120 per machine hour

                     

Overhead Rate of  Testing Department=   Factory Overhead / Machine Hours=  900,000/ 6000 hours=  $ 150 per unit per machine hour.

Overhead Allocated

                                         Commercial              Residential

Assembly Department       1.4 *120                   1.1 dmh *120

                                               168                          132

Testing Department             2.8*150                    2.2*150

<u>                                                420                             330                    </u>

<u>Total Overhead per Unit     $ 588                       $  462              </u>

c. ABC approach is better as it gives an estimate of the overhead per unit both for the Commercial and Residential department using the assembly and testing overheads rates separately. The single plant wide rate gives a mere estimate of the overall costs.

3 0
2 years ago
Wilson Trucking, Inc. reports these account balances at January 1, 2015 (shown in alphabetical order):Accounts Payable $220,000A
dexar [7]

Answer:

The correct option is C,$ 1,399,000

Explanation:

The items on the credit column would be the sum of  accounts payable, capital stock, notes payable and retained earnings  minus the payment of accounts payable and notes payable

Accounts payable is $220,000

capital stock is $680,000

notes payable is $520,000

retained earnings is $140,000

payment in respect of accounts payable is $150,000

payment in respect of notes payable is $11,000

total of credit column=$220,000+$680,000+$520,000+$140,000-$150,000-$11,000=$ 1,399,000.00  

6 0
3 years ago
Consider three investment plans at an annual rate of 9.38%.
PolarNik [594]

Answer:

Investor A = $545216 .

Investor B = $352377

Investor C = $897594

Explanation:

Annual rate ( r )  = 9.38%

N = 41 years

<u> Calculate the balance at age of 65</u>

1) For Investor A

balance at the end of 10 years

= $2000 (FIA, 9.38 %, 10) (1 + 0.0938) ≈ $33845

Hence at the end of 65 years ( balance )

= $33845 (FIP, 9.38 %, 31) ≈ $545216 .

2) For investor B

 at the age of 65 years ( balance )

= $2000 (FIP, 9.38%, 31) = $322159 x (1 + 0.0938) ≈ $352377

3) For Investor C

at the age of 65 years ( balance )

= $2000 (FIP, 9.38%, 41) = $820620 x (1 + 0.0938) ≈ $897594

7 0
2 years ago
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