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Inessa [10]
4 years ago
14

Can the mean value theorum be applied to the function f(x)=1/x^2 on the interval [-2, 1]? Explain.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Temka [501]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

No, it can not be applied.

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = 1/x²

f(x) is a polynomial that is not continuous

As,

f(x) = 1/0 is undefines

Secondly, it is not differentiable (i.e. the derivative does not exists on the interval given)

Derivative of this function

f'(x) = (1)x^-2

       = -2x^(-2-1)

       = -2x^(-3)

       = -2/x³

      =  -2/x³

f'(0) = -2/0 is undefined

Thus, mean value theorem can not be applied.

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