Y=-1 and 1/4x+5 y=x+2 answer choice a.(-5,-3) b.(12/5,22/5) c.(1,3) SHOW WORK !!

A fair charges an admission fee of 2 dollars for each person. Let a be the cost of admission (in dollars) for P people. Write an

Tomtit [17]

Answer:

$a = 2p$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

$Admission\ Fee = \$2$ per person

Required

Represent as an equation

For 1 person, the admission fee is 2

For p people, the admission fee will be 2p.

Hence:

$a = 2p$

5 0

3 years ago

im stupid. honestly. just help me pls. this is probably really easy but i aint done any maths in over a month so ion remember ho

KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

19 coins

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that mean is the sum of all the elements divided by the number of elements there are: m = t/n, where m is the mean, t is the total sum, and n is the number of elements.

Here, we are given the mean number of coins for all 27 + 18 = 45 children is 16, so m = 16 and n = 45. Then:

m = t/n

16 = t/45

t = 720

This t means that the total number of coins that all the boys and girls have is 720 coins.

Now, we also know the mean number of coins for the boys only, which is 14. Since there are 27 boys, then:

m = t/n

14 = t/27

t = 378

This t means the total number of coins all the boys have.

Subtracting 378 from 720, we get 342, which is the total number of coins the girls have. We also know there are 18 girls, so:

m = t/n

m = 342 / 18 = 19

Thus, the mean is 19 coins.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How do you solve this? cosθ-tanθcosθ=0

laila [671]

First, lets note that $tan(\theta)\cdot cos(\theta)=sin(\theta)$ . This leads us with the following problem:

$cos(\theta)-sin(\theta)=0$

Lets add sin on both sides, and we get:

$cos(\theta)=sin(\theta)$

Now if we divide with sin on both sides we get:

$\frac{cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}=1$

Now we can remember how cot is defined, it is (cos/sin). So we have:

$cot(\theta)=1$

Now take the inverse of cot and we get:
$\theta=cot^{-1}(1)=\pi\cdot n+ \frac{\pi}{4} , \quad n\in \mathbb{Z}$

In general we have $cot^{-1}(1)=\frac{\pi}{4}$ , the reason we have to add pi times n, is because it is a function that has multiple answers, see the picture: