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lara31 [8.8K]
3 years ago
8

PB8.

Business
1 answer:
Maurinko [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Products         Selling price   Unit variable cost

                                $                       $

Junior                     50                      15

Adult                       75                      25

Expert                     <u>110 </u>                   <u> 60</u>

Total                      <u> 235 </u>                  <u> 100</u>

The sales price per composite unit = $235

The contribution margin per composite unit

= Composite selling price - Composite unit variable cost  

= $235 - $100

= $135

Break-even point in units

= <u>Fixed cost</u>

  Contribution per unit

= <u>$114,750</u>

  $135

= 850 units

Break-even point in dollars

= Break-even point in units x Composite selling price

= 850 units x $235

= $199,750

                     Income Statement    

                                                               $

Total contribution ($135 x 850 units)   114,750

Less: Fixed cost                                     <u>114,750</u>

Net profit                                                   <u> 0</u>

                                                                                                                                                                             

Explanation:

Sales price per composite unit is the aggregate of all the selling prices.

Contribution margin per composite unit equals composite selling price minus composite unit variable cost.

Break-even point in units is fixed cost divided per composite contribution margin per unit.

Break-even point in dollars equal break-even point in units multiplied by selling price.

Income statement is prepared by deducting the total fixed cost from the total contribution.

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Suppose you purchase one share of the stock of Red Devil Corporation at the beginning of year 1 for $42.50. At the end of year 1
kkurt [141]

Answer:

17.76%

Explanation:

The computation of the time-weighted return on your investment is given below

But before that we have to do the following calculations

Year 1 = ($46.50 - $42.50) + 2 ÷ ($42.50) × 100 = 14.12%

Year 2 = ($54.50 - $46.50) + 2 ÷ ($46.50) × 100 = 21.51%

Now the time weighted return is

(1 + t)^2 = (1 + 14.12%) × (1 + 21.51%)

= 1.1412 × 1.2151

= √1.3867 - 1

= 17.76%

8 0
3 years ago
Cusic Industries had the following operating results for 2019: sales = $34,621; cost of goods sold = $24,359; depreciation expen
Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

a. $1,132.50

b. $9,884.50

c. $10,586

d.1 $2,725

d.2 - $4,363.50

Explanation:

a. The computation of the net income is shown below:

= Sales - cost of good sold - depreciation expense - interest expense - income tax expense

= $34,621 - $24,359 - $6,027 - $2,275 - 377.50

= $1,132.50

The income tax expense

= ($34,621 - $24,359 - $6,027 - $2,275) × 25%

= $377.50

b. The operating cash flow is shown below:

= EBIT + Depreciation - Income tax expense

where,

EBIT =  Sales - cost of good sold - depreciation expense

       =  $34,621 - $24,359 - $6,027

       =  $4,235

And all other items would remain same

Now put these values to the above formula

So, the value would equal to

= $4,235 + $6,027- $377.50

= $9,884.50

c. Computation of the cash flow from assets for 2019 is shown below:

= Operating cash flow - net capital spending - changes in working capital

where, net capital capital = ending fixed assets - beginning fixed assets + depreciation

= $24,529 -  $19,970 + $6,027

= $10,586

Changes in working capital = (ending balance of current assets - ending balance of  current liabilities) - (beginning balance of current assets - beginning balance of  current liabilities)

= ($8,702 - $4,700) - ($7,075 - $4,010)

= $4,002 - $3,065

= $937

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $9,884.50 - $10,586 - $937

= - $1,638.50

d.1 The computation of the cash flow to creditors is shown below:

= Interest expense - ending balance of long term debt + beginning balance of long term debt

= $2,725 - 0 + 0

= $2,725

d.2 The computation of the cash flow to stockholder is shown below:

= Cash flow from asset - cash flow to creditors

=  - $1,638.50 -  $2,725

= - $4,363.50

6 0
3 years ago
Under the sales comparison approach to valuation, a subject property has 3 bedrooms, two bathrooms and is on a golf course. The
kondaur [170]

Answer:

The subject property should be valued at $760,000

Explanation:

Sales comparison approach to valuation in real estate values properties by comparing their similar characteristics, and the features are priced. The total value of a property is thus the addition of all features.

In the instance given, both properties have 3 bedrooms and 2 bathrooms and so using comparison theses features are equally priced at $690,000.

So the property with the golf course will have $690,000 added to the value of the golf course ($70,000).

That is $760,000.

8 0
3 years ago
Capico is a pharmaceutical company. The company has its factory outlets in various countries and is currently not planning on an
Harman [31]

Capico will need credit for Research and development as it should research on the new drug and also study about its competitors

6 0
3 years ago
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A company uses the departmental overhead rate method. Total overhead costs are $5,000,000. Of this total, the machining departme
AleksAgata [21]

Answer:

Allocation rate Machining= $50 per machine hour

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated Machining cost= $4,000,000

Estimated Number of machine hours= 80,000

<u>To calculate the allocation rate for the Machining department, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Allocation rate Machining= total estimated costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Allocation rate Machining= 4,000,000 / 80,000

Allocation rate Machining= $50 per machine hour

4 0
3 years ago
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