Answer:
A hostile takeover with IDNIC corporation as the target company.
Explanation:
Since SKRAM is appealing directly to shareholders of IDNIC to acquire stocks of IDNIC corporation, it means they have a target of getting them to have a certain percentage of ownership in IDNIC because owning a stock in a company means having a percentage of ownership in that company.
This kind of appeal can be likened to trying to an aggressive push to make the shareholders take over the IDNIC corporation.
<span>
In this scenario, the mean as a measure of central tendency will be least
effective as an accurate representation of financial performance.
</span><span>The mean is a measure of central tendency that is the average for a sample.
</span><span>In this specific case the mean is not effective measure because there is a huge difference in the financial performance in the last month compared to the previous months.So the mean would not give the real picture.</span>
Answer: When economists say that a good is no -rival in consumption, More than one person can enjoy the good at the same time
A good is excludable if someone can be prevented from using it. A good is rival in consumption if one person's use reduces others' ability to use the same unit of the good. Markets work best for private goods, which are excludable and rival in consumption. Markets do not work well for other types of goods.
Answer:
612,936 shares
Explanation:
The computation of the number of shares of stock must be sold is shown below:
Before that we have to compute
Required sales proceeds net of spread is
= (Raise amount + estimated cost for legal and accounting fees) ÷ (1 - spread rate)
= ($14.9 million + $582,000) ÷ (1 - 0.0815)
= ($1,5482,000) ÷ (1 - 0.0815)
= $16,855,743.06
So, shares to be sold is
= $16,855,743.06 ÷ $27.50
= 612,936 shares
Answer:
4 years
Explanation:
The computation of the payback period is shown below:
Payback period is
= Cost of a Machine ÷ Annual cash flow
where,
Cost of a machine = $24,000
And, the annual cash flow is
= Net Income + Depreciation expense
= $2,000 + $4,000
= $6,000
Now placing these values to the above formula
So, the payback period is
= $24,000 ÷ $6,000
= 4 years
