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ioda
3 years ago
5

Carla Vista Company, organized in 2019, has set up a single account for all intangible assets. The following summary discloses t

he debit entries that have been recorded during 2020.
1/2/20 Purchased patent (7-year life) $314,300
4/1/20 Purchase goodwill (indefinite life) 359,000
7/1/20 Purchased franchise with 10-year life; expiration date 7/1/30 439,000
8/1/20 Payment of copyright (5-year life) 166,800
9/1/20 Research and development costs 229,000
TOTAL :$1,508,100

Prepare the necessary entry to clear the Intagible assets account and to set up separate accounts for distinct types of intangibles.
Business
1 answer:
Serga [27]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Patent (Dr.)         $314,300

Goodwill (Dr.)     $359,000

Franchise (Dr.)   $439,000

Copyright (Dr.)   $166,800

Research and development (Dr.)    $229,000

Intangible Assets (Cr.)    $1,508,100

Explanation:

Intangible assets are not physical in nature. The value of intangible assets is hard to evaluate. Carla Vista Company, will record intangible assets at the value at which it is purchased. All individual intangible assets are debited and the main single account of intangible assets is credited to record and set up separate accounts for distinct type of intangibles.

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Prepare the journal entry to record autumn company’s issuance of 63,000 shares of no-par value common stock assuming the shares:
mojhsa [17]

The entry for this transaction would be this: 

Land                                1,827,000 

Ordinary shares                       1,827,000 

# 

<span>The market value of the shares on </span>this transaction<span> does not affect the recording of this transaction. If the share has no par value, the stated value should be used. Stated value is a value assigned by the company to its stock for the purpose of accounting and it does not have any relation with the market value of the shares. Since stated value is not given in this problem, we should record the entire amount of the land exchanged in this transaction to the "Ordinary shares" account.</span>

7 0
3 years ago
9. What do you understand by the term financial futures?
Ede4ka [16]

Answer:

Explanation:

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6 0
2 years ago
The YTM on a 2 year zero coupon bond is 5% and the YTM on a 1 year zero coupon bond is 3%. What does the no-arbitrage condition
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

<em>$111.11 or 111.11% of face value</em>

Explanation:

Assuming the face value of $100 for all bonds (without loss of generality)

If the two year coupon bond is repackaged as a one year zero coupon bond paying $12 after one year and another two year bond paying $112 after 2 years, the price of the two zero coupon bonds are given as

Price of one year Zero coupon bond = 12/1.05 = $11.43 (one year ZCB has YTM of 5%)

Price of two year Zero coupon bond = 112/1.06^2 = $99.68 (two year ZCB has YTM of 6%)

So, one can sell the repackaged bonds at a price = $11.43+ $99.68 = $111.11 or 111.11% of face value

7 0
2 years ago
Calfee Corporation is a manufacturer that uses job-order costing. The company has supplied the following data for the just compl
AlladinOne [14]

Answer:

$200,000

Explanation:

The computation of the ending balance in the work in process inventory account is shown below:

But before that determined the overhead rate per direct labor

Manufacturing OH estimated   $595,000  

Divide by DLH estimated 35000  

OH rate per DLH    $17  

Now

Beginning Inventory of WIP   $19,000  

Current manufacturing cost    

material                  $420,000  

Labour                   $641,000  

Manufacturing OH (33,000 × $17) $561000  

Total Manufacturing cost      $1,622,000  

Total cost of WIP       $1,641,000  

Less: Cost of goods manufactured $1,441,000  

Ending inventory of WIP        $200,000

8 0
3 years ago
Cairns owns 80 percent of the voting stock of Hamilton, Inc. The parent’s interest was acquired several years ago on the date th
tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

Answer:

hello your question has a missing journal entry table attached below is the entry journal table completely filled

Explanation:

Amount of bonds acquired = 40% of original bond

i) Bonds payable = 40% * 1,300,000

                           = $520000

purchase price of bonds = $520000 * 96% ( FACE VALUE )

                                         = $499200

hence the annual amortization

(bonds payable - purchase price of bonds ) / 10 years - 2 years

(520000 - 499200 ) / 8  = $20800/8 = $2600

ii) premium on bonds payable

$20800 - $2600 = $18200

cash amount = $520000 * 8% = $41600

intra entity expense and income table is attached below

from the table

iii) intra-entity interest expense = $39000 and the

iv) intra-entity interest income = $44200

v) investment in bonds

purchase price of bonds + annual amortization

= $499200 + $2600 = $501800

the book value on bonds as at 1st January 2011

=$1300000 * 105% = $1365000

Premium on bonds as at January 1st 2011

= $1365000 - $1300000 = $65000

amortization of premium as at January 1st 2011

=( ($65000) / 10 years ) * 2 years

= $13000

hence the controlling interest in bonds payable = $540800

vi) gains on retirement bonds

=  $540800 - $499200 = $41600

attached below is the journal entry on 31st December 2013

5 0
3 years ago
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