Answer:
Explanation:
I will give a basic hint to understanding this problem
Prevailing technique or what is best known as "Dominant Strategy" is an activity profile that is best for a specific player review of what different players are picking. for this situation there is no prevailing procedure for any player on the grounds that there is no single activity profile that expands the result for any player.
So we can say from this observations that the following is valid;
- A doesn't have a dominant strategy
- B doesn't have a dominant strategy
There are two Nash equilibria for this situation. Both the organizations are charging a low cost and both the organizations are charging a significant expense.
As such they can augment their benefit given what the adversary is doing.
I hope this explains the observation seen.
cheers I hope this helps
Answer: (C) Just-in-time (JIT)
Explanation:
The just-in-time is one of the type of inventory system that reduced the overall amount of the inventory goods and the services that is owed by the manufacturer in the business.
It is also known as JIT inventory system and the main aim of this type of system is to increase the efficiency of the products and the services in an organization and reducing the wastage in the production process.
According to the question, the just-in-time inventory control system creating the production for the short time period and for the few hours also ans they reduce overall inventory cost in the system.
Therefore, Option (C) is correct.
Answer:
b. the experience curve will bottom out at some point.
Explanation:
In the case when the manager could not become complacent regarding the advantage of efficiency based cost so here the experience curve should be end up at some point of time as the experience curve shows the relationship between the production quantity in cumulative one with the production cost
Therefore the option b is correct
Answer:
The amount that will be received today is $2518857.85
Explanation:
To calculate the amount that will be received today, we need to discount the amount that will be received three years from now for a period of 3 years using the given discount rate. As there is only a single cash flow, we will use the formula for present value of principal.
The present value of principal is,
Present value = Cash flow / (1+d)^t
Where,
- Cash flow is the amount for which we have to found the present value
- d is the discount rate
- t is the time in terms of number of periods
- Here the t is in years and the number of periods is 3 years
Present value = 3000000 / (1+0.06)^3
Present value = 2518857.849 rounded off to $2518857.85
<span>Of all the expresions given (B) is the correct answer. So the answer is "let's not repeat our competitor's mistakes". Redundant is a expressions which says it no longer in use or needed. So by the definition of it, the above phrase seems the option.</span>