The result will be 34.561
Ok so to have a number divisible by 6, it needs to be divisible by 2 and 3. Because it ends in 0, it will always be divisible by 2. Now to be divisible by 3, the sum of all digits must be divisible by 3
Sk 1+3+? = something divisible by 3
? =2 in this scenario or 5 or 8
So possible numbers are 1320,1350,or 1380
Answer:
When a card is chosen at random with replacement five times, X is the number of times a prime number is chosen; When a card is chosen at random with replacement six times, X is the number of times a 3 is chosen.
Step-by-step explanation:
In a binomial distribution, there are only two outcomes, or outcomes that can be reduced to 2. In the first choice, we either draw a prime number or do not draw a prime number. In the third choice, we either draw a 3 or do not draw a 3.
There must be a fixed number of trials. In the first choice, we have 5 trials; in the third option, we have 6 trials.
The trials must be independent of each other. Since the cards in the first and third options are drawn with replacement, the outcome of one trial does not influence the probability of the next trial.
The probability must be the same for every trial. This is true of the first and third options.
Answer:
$177.60
Step-by-step explanation: You have to get 3% of $1480 which is 44.4, then you multiply 44.4 by 4 since its 4 years and the result is 177.60.
Answer:
4
Step-by-step explanation:
If u is parallel to v, so:
(24x - 1) + (20x +5) = 180
24x - 1 + 20x + 5 = 180
24x + 20x - 1 + 5 =180
44x - 1 + 5 = 180
44x + 4 = 180
44x = 180 - 4
44x = 176
44x / 44 = 176 / 44
<h2>x = 4</h2>