Answer:
The correct response is Option b (1.60%).
Explanation:
According to the question,
Initial investment,
= $50,000
Perpetual annual cash flows,
= $800
Now,
The interest rate will be:
= 
On substituting the given values, we get
= 
= 
i.e.,
= 
The amount of overhead allocated to a job that used 300 direct labor hours is $900.
<h3>Overhead allocated:</h3>
First step is to calculate the predetermined overhead rate per direct labor hour
Using this formula
Predetermined overhead rate=Estimated manufacturing overhead/Estimated direct labor hours
Predetermined overhead rate=$450,000/150,000
Second step is to calculate the overhead allocated
Overhead allocated=Predetermined overhead rate × Direct labor hours
Overhead allocated=$3×300
Overhead allocated=$900
Inconclusion the amount of overhead allocated to a job that used 300 direct labor hours is $900.
Learn more about overhead allocated here:brainly.com/question/15739613
Answer:
401k
Explanation:
investment plan allow you to invest the most amount of money? ... A Roth 401(k) plan takes money after tax has been removed from gross income, and has a contribution limit, but withdrawal is tax free. A Roth Individual Retirement Account allows you to draw a fixed amount that is not taxed.
Answer:
line
Explanation:
hope this helps have a nice
Answer:
Option A The impact of a change in the local currency on inflow and outflow variables can sometimes be indirect and therefore different from what is expected.
Explanation:
The reason is that the changes in the currency exchange rate in which the company receives the payment and is also not a home currency, such risk exposure is known as economic exposure. So the only option that correct here is option A.
Option B is incorrect because depreciation is non cash item and it is not exposed to currency fluctuations.
Option C and D are also incorrect because domestic firms don't face any economic exposure.
