Answer:
y = 40
Step-by-step explanation:
__y_ x 8 = 8 x 5
8
y = 40
Answer:
3) m = 18
4) p = 2
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer and Step-by-step explanation: P(X) calculated by the binomial probability formula is:
P(X) =
.
P(20) = ![\left[\begin{array}{ccc}53\\20\end{array}\right] .(0.3)^{20}.(1-0.3)^{33}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7D53%5C%5C20%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20.%280.3%29%5E%7B20%7D.%281-0.3%29%5E%7B33%7D)
P(20) = 
P(20) = 0.0552
To determine whether the normal distribution can be used to estimate this probability, both n.p and n.(1-p) must be greater than 5:
n . p = 53*0.3 = 15.9
n.(1-p) = 53(1-0.3) = 37.1
Since both ARE greater than 5, normal distribution can be used.
To approximate:
mean = n . p = 15.9
standard deviation =
= 3.34
Find the z-score:
z =
= 
z-score = 0.8907
Comparing values:
0.8907 - 0.0552 = 0.8355
Answer:
5.85
Step-by-step explanation:
Use the pyramtherm theorem method and I got this answer.
Ok, so we know it costs $1.10 to make a pin, so the cost of making all 1000 pins must have been:

We know that 35% of the pins, hence 350 pins, were given to charity (we assume this means donated for free), and so the company sold 650 pins.
60% of these we sold at $3 each;

So 390 pins sold at $3 each comes to

So the company has already made $1170.
The other 40% of the 650 remaining pins (260 pins) were sold at $5 for 2. We assume from the question that they were only sold in pairs and were all sold, so we can essentially figure out that 130 pairs were sold at $5 each;

So the company has sold the pins for $650 + $1170 = $1820
This means that the company has made
$1820 - $1100 = $720 as profit
So the percentage profit earned (profit/cost times 100%) would be

Which to one decimal place is 65.5% profit.
Hope this helped.