Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
I assume that you mean
sec(x)-tan(x) = 1 / ( sec(x) + tan(x) ) , right ?
then this is equivalent to
[ sec(x) - tan(x) ] x [ sec(x) + tan(x) ] = 1
let s evaluate it, we got
sec2(x) - sec(x)tan(x) + - sec(x)tan(x) - tan2(x) = sec2(x) - tan2(x)
= (1 - sin2(x) ) / cos2(x) = cos2(x) / cos2(x) = 1
as cos2(x) + sin2(x) = 1
Answer:
No
Step-by-step explanation:
Sides AB to DC aren't congruent/parallel
Sides BC to AD aren't congruent/parallel
The equation to show the depreciation at the end of x years is

Data;
- cost of machine = 1500
- annual depreciation value = x
<h3>Linear Equation</h3>
This is an equation written to represent a word problem into mathematical statement and this is easier to solve.
To write a linear depreciation model for this machine would be
For number of years, the cost of the machine would become

This is properly written as

where x represents the number of years.
For example, after 5 years, the value of the machine would become

The value of the machine would be $500 at the end of the fifth year.
From the above, the equation to show the depreciation at the end of x years is f(x) = 1500 - 200x
Learn more on linear equations here;
brainly.com/question/4074386
Answer:
i think you got that right its negative
Step-by-step explanation: