This probability is the same as 1-(two different suited cards). Your first card can be any of the 52 cards. Your second card must be any of the 39 different suited remaining 51 cards. So the answer is 1 - (52/52)(39-51). Note: I assumed there was no replacement.
Answer:
I think it's the last one D
Step-by-step explanation:
I'm not 100% sure, but I think the x can't repeat and 4 is the only number of x that hasn't been plotted yet. Tell me if it was right?
30 divided by 6 is 5
6 divided by 5 is 1. 2
Answer:
Fifty percent of the data values lies between 34 and 46.
It is unlikely that there are any outliers.
Step-by-step explanation:
drawing out this box plot and looking online for a picture of the same plot:
From the box plot:
median=46
Q1=42
Q3=70
Q3-Q1= IQR=70-42=28
max=76
min=34
Range=max-min=76-34=42
no outliers seen from boxplot
