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earnstyle [38]
3 years ago
10

Which of the following bases of power emphasizes threatening or actual punishment?

Business
2 answers:
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]3 years ago
6 0
<h2>Hello!</h2>

The answer is C. Coercive.

<h2>Why?</h2>

According to the bases of power, coercive power means that someone can punish someone who deserves it when it's needed, punishment can be just punishment but it can also mean serious actions as demoting, restricting privileges or in the last instance, firing people.

Coercive power can be a problem if it's applied to everyone, every time, the result of coercive actions applied in an inappropriate way could result in useful people resignations. That's why coercive tools are the last resort if corrections are needed.

Have a nice day!

Arte-miy333 [17]3 years ago
5 0
C. coercive I pretty sure
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Interest amounting to $4 was credited to your account by the bank in September. The bank's service charge for the month was $5.
allsm [11]

Answer:

Bank Reconciliation Statement as at October 2:

Balance as per checkbook            $601

Add: Electronic transfer             $2,400

       Interest                                       $4

Less: Bank charge                            ($5)

Balance as per bank statement $3,000

Explanation:

A bank reconciliation statement is a statement prepared periodically to reconcile the balance in the cash book with the balance shown on a bank statement.

The process starts with identifying transactions that do not (do) appear in the cash book and those that do not (do) appear in the bank statement, which did not appear in the other.  Errors are also identified and corrected during the process.  After this, the reconciliation statement is prepared to agree the two sources of balances.

6 0
3 years ago
Wildhorse Co. wrote checks totaling $41500 during October and $45321 during November. $39460 of these checks cleared the bank in
Natalka [10]

Answer: $3,086

Explanation:

Wrote checks totaling $41,500 in

October less $39,460 of these checks cleared in October

Wrote checks totaling $45,321 in November less $44,275 cleared the bank in November

Balance of uncleared checks

In October is $41,500 - $39,460 = $2,040

In November is $45,321 - $44,275 = $1,046

Total outstanding checks on 30 Nov is $2,040+$1,046 = $3,086

8 0
3 years ago
Claude C. Hopkins believed that advertising moved from being a _____to a science.
ANTONII [103]

I think pig in a poke ;)

7 0
3 years ago
In taking a physical inventory at the end of Year 1, Grant Company forgot to count certain units and understated ending inventor
Rina8888 [55]

Answer:

a. Overstates Year 1 cost of goods sold.

b. Understates Year 1 net income

c. Understates Year 2 cost of goods sold

Explanation:

a. The formula for Calculating the Cost of Goods sold is;

<em>Cost of Goods Sold = Opening inventory + Purchases - Closing inventory.</em>

If the closing inventory is understated, it will reduced the amount being subtracted from Purchases and Opening inventory which would means that Cost of Goods sold will be overstated.

b. The Cost of goods sold is deducted from sales to give Gross profit. If Cost of goods is overstated, it will reduce Gross Profit higher than it should. A lower Gross Profit equates to a lower Net Income.

c. Going by the formula in <em>a;</em>

<em>Cost of Goods Sold = Opening inventory + Purchases - Closing inventory.</em>

In Year 2, the understated Year 1 closing stock will become the understated Year 2 Opening stock. With the opening stock understated, the Cost of goods will be understated as well because Opening stock is meant to increase Cost of goods sold as the formula shows. If it is understated, the amount that it will add will be understated as well.

4 0
3 years ago
If Wild Widgets, Inc., were an all-equity company, it would have a beta of 0.9. The company has a target debt-equity ratio of .4
Veronika [31]

Answer:

a. 6.5%

b. 13.06%

c. 10.91%

Explanation:

a.

Cost of debt of a bond is yield to maturity. Yield to maturity is the rate of return that a investor actually receives or a borrows actually pays on a bond. It is long term return or payment which is expressed in annual term.

Formula for yield to maturity is as follow

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

By placing values in the formula

Assuming the bond face value is $1,000

Yield to maturity = [ (1000x7.2) + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / [ ( 1,000 + $1,090 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $72 + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = [ $72 - $4.5 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = $67.5 / $1,045

Yield to maturity = 6.5%

So, the cost of Debt is 6.5%

b.

As 0.9 is the unlevered beta, We need Levered beta due to restructuring of capital.

Beta Levered = Beta Unlevered x ( 1 + ( 1 - tax rate ) x Debt / Equity)

Beta Levered = 0.9 x ( 1 + ( 1 - 0.35 ) x 0.4 )

Beta Levered = 1.134

Cost of equity can be calculated using CAPM

CAPM calculated the expected return on an equity investment based on the risk free rate, market premium and risk beta of the investment.

Formula for CAPM is as follow

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market premium)

As we know the Risk premium is the difference of market return and risk free rate.

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market Return - Risk free Rate )

Ra = Rf + β ( Rm - Rf )

Ra = 4.1% + 1.134 ( 12% - 4.1% )

Ra = 13.06%

Cost of Equity is 13.06%

c.

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity )+ ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )

Placing the values in formula

If the debt to equity 0.4  the equity value should be 1 and total capital is 1.4 ( 1 + 0.4 )

WACC = ( 13.06% x 1 / 1.4 )+ ( 6.5% ( 1- 0.35) x 0.4 / 1.4 ) = 9.71% + 1.2% = 10.91%

WACC is 10.91%

4 0
3 years ago
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