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vovangra [49]
3 years ago
14

Suppose a country has government expenditures of $3,500, taxes of $2,200, consumption of $9,000, exports of $2,500, imports of $

2,700, transfer payments of $750, capital depreciation of $800, and investment of $3,000. GDP equals
A. $24,450
B. $11,550
C. $15,300
D. $20,700
Business
1 answer:
TiliK225 [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct option is C ,$15,300

Explanation:

GDP is a short form of Gross Domestic Product which is an indicator of total goods produced in an economy in a period of one year.

Using the expenditure method,GDP van be computed using the below formula:

GDP=C+I+G+(X-M)

C is the consumption in the economy which is $9000

I is the level of investment at $3,000

G is the government expenditure of $3,500

X is the export of $2,500

M is the import of $2,700

GDP=$9000+$3000+$3500+($2500-$2700)

GDP=$15,300

Hence the GDP is $15,300

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Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments. Return (%) Standard Deviation (%) Treasury bills 4.5 0 Stock P 8.
Jlenok [28]

Answer:

a. Standard deviation of the portfolio = 7.00%

b(i) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 30.00%

b(ii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 4.00%

b(iii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 21.40%

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments.

                                  Return (%)           Standard Deviation (%)

Treasury bills                4.5                                    0

Stock P                          8.0                                   14

Stock Q                        17.0                                  34

Stock R                       21.5                                    26

Calculate the standard deviations of the following portfolios.

a. 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

b. 50% each in Q and R, assuming the shares have:

i. perfect positive correlation

ii. perfect negative correlation

iii. no correlation

(Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

The explanation to the answer is now provided as follows:

a. Calculate the standard deviations of 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

Since there is no correlation between Treasury bills and stocks, it therefore implies that the correlation coefficient between the Treasury bills and stock P is zero.

The standard deviation between the Treasury bills and stock P can be calculated by first estimating the variance of their returns using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WT^2 * SDT^2) + (WP^2 * SDP^2) + (2 * WT * SDT * WP * SDP * CFtp) ......................... (1)

Where;

WT = Weight of Stock Treasury bills = 50%

WP = Weight of Stock P = 50%

SDT = Standard deviation of Treasury bills = 0

SDP = Standard deviation of stock P = 14%

CFtp = The correlation coefficient between Treasury bills and stock P = 0.45

Substituting all the values into equation (1), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 0^2) + (50%^2 * 14%^2) + (2 * 50% * 0 * 50% * 14% * 0) = 0.49%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.49%)^(1/2) = (0.49)^0.5 = 7.00%

b. 50% each in Q and R

To calculated the standard deviation 50% each in Q and R, we first estimate the variance using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WQ^2 * SDQ^2) + (WR^2 * SDR^2) + (2 * WQ * SDQ * WR * SDR * CFqr) ......................... (2)

Where;

WQ = Weight of Stock Q = 50%

WR = Weight of Stock R = 50%

SDQ = Standard deviation of stock Q = 34%

SDR = Standard deviation of stock R = 26%

b(i). assuming the shares have perfect positive correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 1) = 9.00%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^0.5 = 30.00%

b(ii). assuming the shares have perfect negative correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = -1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * (-1)) = 0.16%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^0.5 = 4.00%

b(iii). assuming the shares have no correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 0

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 0) = 4.58%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^0.5 = 21.40%

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Explanation:

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The local bank just invested a lot of money into hiring a professional decorator to redo the lobby area to make it more inviting
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I feel like the answer is D
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A phenotypically non-bald woman and a bald man produce four bald sons and a non-bald daughter. What are the most likely genotype
Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

b. bb and BB

Explanation:

For example, pattern of baldness is dominant in man and recessive in female. This is because the gene for baldness (B) in heterozygous state (Bb) expresses itself in male but not in female. It means gene B for baldness behaves as a dominant in male and as a recessive in female. In man due to influence of male sex hormone, a single gene for this trait can cause loss of hair.

But in woman (due to the absence of the male sex hormone) two genes are required to produce baldness.

BB or Bb = Bald in males

bb = not bald in male

BB = Bald in females

Bb or bb = not bald in females

Non-bald womam (bb; XX) x Bald man (BB; XY)

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Xb     XX; Bb (non-bald daughter)          XY; Bb (bald son)

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