Answer:
d.total factory overhead cost variance.
Explanation:
In manufacturing accounting, at the beginning of the period, manufacturing overheads (i.e. costs other than Direct Material and Direct Labor) has been applied to Work-in-process using a predetermined overhead rate. At the end of the period, if the manufacturing overhead account shows a debit balance, that signifies that overhead has been under-applied (i.e. the manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process is <u>less </u>than the actual manufacturing overhead cost for the period), and contrariwise if the manufacturing overhead account shows a credit balance, it means the overhead is over-applied (i.e. the manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process is <u>more </u>than the actual manufacturing overhead cost for the period). In any case this balance warrants an adjustment to close out the books, by transferring it to the cost of goods sold account.
Her expected gain is $7,000 based on the information shown on the question above. This problem can be solved by using the expected value formula which stated as EV = W*Pw-L*Pw where EV is the expected value, W is the win value, Pw is the probability of winning, L is the lost value and Pl is the probability of losing<span>. Calculation: 7,000 = (40,000-5,000)*0.3 - 5,000*(1-0.3)</span>
Answer:
Confirmation of accounts receivables is not required when the account information is immaterial.
An account is said to have immaterial information when the account doesn't reflect any important or relevant information that can affect the opinions or decisions of shareholders, potential investors or creditors of the company.
The auditors have the responsibility of deciding what information is relevant and important and what is immaterial
Answer:
<em><u>P (x) = 80x - 2x^2 - 3</u></em>
Explanation:
The Profit function is the revenue minus the cost.
Revenue = Price x Quantity = X.px = x(88-2x) = 88x - 2x^2
Therefore the profit function P (x):
P (x) = 88x - 2x^2 - (8x+3)
<em><u>P (x) = 80x - 2x^2 - 3</u></em>
<em><u /></em>
To maximise profit we use the 1st order condition: dP(x)/dq = 0
Therefore, 80 - 4x = 0
4x = 80
x = 20
So 20 leashes maximises profit.
P(x) = 80(20) - 2(20)^2 - 3
<em><u> P = $803 </u></em>
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The price to charge would be:
<u><em>p (x) = 88 - 2(20) = $48</em></u>
<u><em>The best reason would be that the price is a bit expensive for a leash so most people would not buy it.</em></u>
Answer:
1.Please describe your experience with digital media.
2.What do you see as the current trend of PC gaming.
3.what motivates you.
4.What are your main responsibilities as a...?
5.What is a typical day (or week) like for you?
6.What do you like most about your work?
7/What do you like least about your work?
8.What kinds of problems do you deal with?
9.What kinds of decisions do you make?
10.what do you know about his company.
i dont know if this will help but here it is <:
