Answer:
15.04%
Explanation:
When calculating the external rate of return, any excess cash flows are supposed to earn the MARR. It is used when there are multiple IRRs.
Year Cash Flow
0 $3,000
1 -$2,000 discounted at Year 0 = -$2,000/1.14 = -$1,754.39
2 $1,000
3 -$6,000 discounted at Year 0 = -$6,000/1.14³ = -$4,049.83
4 $3,800
total discounted at Year 0 = -$5,804.22
now we calculate the future value of our cash inflows:
Year Cash Flow
0 $3,000 FV at end of Year 4 = $3,000 x 1.14⁴ = $5,066.88
2 $1,000 FV at end of Year 4 = $1,000 x 1.14² = $1,299.60
4 $3,800 FV at end of Year 4 = $3,800
total future value at end of Year 4 = $10,166.48
now we have the following equation:
-$5,804.22 x (1 + i)⁴ = $10,166.48
(1 + i)⁴ = $10,166.48 / -$5,804.22 = -1.751567
⁴√(1 + i) = ⁴√-1.751567
1 + i = 1.1504
i = 0.1504 = 15.04%
