Answer: you would have $1772 at the end of 10 years.
Step-by-step explanation:
The formula for continuously compounded interest is
A = P x e (r x t)
Where
A represents the future value of the investment after t years.
P represents the present value or initial amount invested
r represents the interest rate
t represents the time in years for which the investment was made.
e is the mathematical constant approximated as 2.7183.
From the information given,
P = $1200
r = 3.9% = 3.9/100 = 0.039
t = 10 years
Therefore,
A = 1200 x 2.7183^(0.039 x 10)
A = 1200 x 2.7183^(0.39)
A = $1772 to the nearest dollar
Using the principle of probability, the probability that the outcome of both spins does not land on "<em>bankrupt</em><em>"</em><em> </em>is 1/144
<u>Given</u><u> </u><u>the</u><u> </u><u>Parameters</u><u> </u><u>:</u>
- Total Number of possible outcomes = 24
- Number of outcomes labeled bankrupt = 2
- Labels which aren't labeled bankrupt = 24 - 2 = 22
<u>Recall</u><u> </u><u>:</u>
- P(A) = <em>required</em><em> </em><em>outcome</em><em> </em><em>/</em><em> </em><em>Total</em><em> </em><em>possible outcomes</em><em> </em>
<u>First</u><u> </u><u>spin</u><u> </u><u>:</u>
- P(not bankrupt) = 2 / 24 = 1/12
<u>Second</u><u> </u><u>spin</u><u> </u><u>:</u>
- P(not bankrupt) = 2/24 = 1/12
P(<em>neither</em><em> </em><em>lands</em><em> </em><em>on</em><em> </em><em>bankrupt</em><em>)</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em>1/12 × 1/12 = 1/144
Therefore, the probability that neither lands on bankrupt is 1/144
Learn more : brainly.com/question/18405415
Answer: The answer Is C.
Step-by-step explanation:
If you multiply 3/4 by 4 then you will get 3.
Also B. is to big to split between four friends and A. is to small.
HOPE THIS HELPS!!!
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Answer:
what is the question
Step-by-step explanation:
there is no question
Answer:
Ray, you need the slope-intercept formula y=mx+b
Step-by-step explanation:
Next you'll need 2 points, any points are fine. Just find two easy ones along the line. I'll just pick Point 1 as P1 = ( 0,4) and point 2 as P2 = (4,0) because they are easy to work with.
next use
point P1 (0,4) in the form (x1,y1)
point P2(4,0) in the form (x2,y2)
slope = m
m = (y2-y1) / (x2-x1)
m = (0-4) / (4-0)
m = -4 / 4
m = -1
now use the point slope with one of the points, to find the slope-intercept form.
y - y1 = m(x -x1)
y - 4 = -1(x-0)
y -4 = -x
y = -x + 4
note:
y = mx +b
y = (-1)x + b is the form. see?