Answer:
Please find the detailed answer as follows:
Explanation:
a) Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated manufacturing overhead cost / Estimated total units in the allocation based
Predetermined overhead rate = 600,000 / 500,000 = 1.2 perunit
b) Total fixed cost spending variance = Actual fixed overhead cost - Estimated overhead cost
= 599,400 - 600,000
= 600 (F) Favourable
c) Total fixed cost volume variance = Actual fixed overheads - Estimated fixed overheads
Actual fixed overheads = Estimated fixed overhead rate * Actual units produced
= 1.2 * 508,000 = $609,600
Total fixed cost volume variance =$ 609,600 - $600,000 = $9600 (F) Favourable
Answer
Financial advantage from further processing $31
Explanation:
<em>A company should process further a product if the additional revenue from the split-off point is greater than than the further processing cost. </em>
<em>Also note that all cost incurred up to the split-off point (the cost of crushing) are irrelevant to the decision to process further . </em>
<em> $</em>
Sales revenue after the split off point( 64+64) 128
Sales revenue at the split-off point (16+47) <u> 63</u>
Additional sales revenue 65
Further processing cost ( 15+19) <u>(34
)</u>
<em>Net income after further processing 31</em>
Financial advantage from further processing $31
Answer: Independent insurance agent
Explanation:
An independent agent is sometimes called an insurance sales agent. An independent insurance agent is an insurance agent who sells insurance policies that are provided by different insurance companies.
An independent insurance agent gets commissions for the insurance policies that are sold. The higher the number of clients they serve, the higher the money they make. Independent insurance agents are not considered to be an employee of a particular insurance company
The correct answer is false.
It is false that the slope of the investment demand function indicates how sensitive investment is to changes in real interest rates. The 'steeper' the investment demand function, the less sensitive investment is to changes in the real rate of interest, all else constant.
We can say that the downward slope is the consequence of several reasons. For instance, the concept that money, its nominal value, is fixed. However, the real value of money depends on the level of prices. So the demand for money is related to the demand for it. The interest rate falls when the price level falls.
Answer:
$99.3625
Explanation:
The computation of ex-dividend stock price is shown below:-
Ex-dividend stock price = Stock closing price - Stock dividend × (1 - tax rate)
= $105.64 - $7.75 × (1 - 19%)
= $105.64 - $7.75 × 0.81
= $105.64 - 6.2775
= $99.3625
Therefore for computing the ex-dividend stock price we simply applied the above formula.
