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crimeas [40]
2 years ago
5

A company has the opportunity to take over a redevelopment project in an industrial area of a city. No immediate investment is r

equired, but it must raze the existing buildings over a four-year period and, at the end of the fourth year, invest $2,400,000 for new construction. It will collect all revenues and pay all costs for a period of 10 years, at which time the entire project, and properties thereon, will revert to the city. The net cash flows are estimated to be as follows:
Year End Net Cash Flow

1 $500,000
2 $300,000
3 $100,000
4 $2,400,000
5 $150,000
6 $200,000
7 $250,000
8 $300,000
9 $350,000
10 $400,000

Tabulate the PW versus the interest rate and determine whether multiple IRRs exist. If so, use the ERR method when e 8% per year to determine a rate of return. A new municipal refuse-collection truck can be purchased for $84,000. Its expected useful life is six years, at which time its market value will be zero. Annual receipts less expenses will be approximately $18,000 per year over the six-year study period. Use the PW method and a MARR of 18% to determine whether this is a good investment.
Business
1 answer:
Ganezh [65]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1-a. The are multiple IRRs stated as follows:

The first IRR value = 4.09%

Second IRR value = 31.82%

1-b. Rate of return = 7.58%

2. This is NOT a good investment because the NPV is negative.

Explanation:

Note: The estimated Net Cash Flow for the 4th year in the data is erroneously stated in the question as a positive value instead as a negative value since it is a cost.

The estimated net cash flows correctly before answering the question as follows:

Year End             Net Cash Flow

1                             $500,000

2                            $300,000

3                            $100,000

4                          –$2,400,000

5                            $150,000

6                            $200,000

7                            $250,000

8                            $300,000

9                            $350,000

10                           $400,000

The explanation of the answers is now given as follows:

1-a. Tabulate the PW versus the interest rate and determine whether multiple IRRs exist.

Note: See Part 1-a of the attached excel file for the tabulation of the PW versus the interest rate.

From Part 1-a of the attached excel file, it can be observed that multiple IRRs exist. This is because there two IRRs stated as follows:

The first IRR value = 4.09%

Second IRR value = 31.82%

1-b. If so, use the ERR method when e 8% per year to determine a rate of return.

Note: See Part 1-a of the attached excel file for the calculation of total future value of income when e = 8% per year.

In the attached excel file, note that year 4 has a cost not income. Therefore,

From attached excel, we have:

Total Future Value of Income = $3,661,508.81

In the attached excel file, note that year 4 has a cost (not income) of $2,400,000. Therefore, it future value is not calculated. However, the present of the cost can be calculated as follows:

Present value of cost in year 4 = $2,400,000 / (100% + e)^4 = $2,400,000 / (100% + 8%)^4 = $1,764,071.65

The rate of return can now be calculated as follows:

Rate of return = ((Total Future Value of Income / Present value of cost in year 4)^(1/Number of period)) - 1 = (($3,661,508.81 / $1,764,071.65)^(1/10)) - 1 = 0.0758, or 7.58%

2. Use the PW method and a MARR of 18% to determine whether this is a good investment.

Note: See Part 2 of the attached excel file for the calculation of net present value (NPV).

From part 2 of the attached excel file, we have:

Net present value = –$21,043.15

Since the net present value is negative, this implies that this is NOT a good investment.

Download xlsx
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Answer:

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Calculation for Stanford Company's Working Capital

Using this formula

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Where,

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5 0
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The adjusting entry that the company should pass at the end of the current year to record the bad debts expense:

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Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  16,900

<h3>What is an allowance for doubtful accounts?</h3>

A contra account called an allowance for doubtful accounts nets against the total receivables shown on the balance sheet to only show the amounts anticipated to be paid. The percentage of accounts receivable that are anticipated to be uncollectible is estimated by the allowance for doubtful accounts.

A negative balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts means that more accounts than anticipated have been written off. A contra asset account with a typical credit balance is the allowance for doubtful accounts.

Under the aging method, the adjusting entry for bad debt expense is calculated using the following formula:

Estimate of uncollectible accounts - (+) Current credit (debit) balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts = Bad debt expense

Hence, The adjusting entry that the company should pass at the end of the current year to record the bad debts expense is given above.

Learn more about the allowance for doubtful accounts:

brainly.com/question/17008094

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"Your question is incomplete, probably the complete question/missing part is:"

Bad Debts Expense 16,500

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  16,500

Bad Debts Expense 16,100

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  16,100

Bad Debts Expense 16,900

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  16,900

Accounts Receivable 16,500

Bad Debts Expense 400

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Accounts Receivable 16,900

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  16,900

8 0
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Answer:

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