Answer:
Under allocation= 1,000 underallocated
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Dukes Corporation used a predetermined overhead rate this year of $2 per direct labor-hour, based on an estimate of 20,000 direct labor-hours to be worked during the year. Actual costs and activity during the year were: Actual manufacturing overhead cost incurred $ 38,000 Actual direct labor-hours worked 18,500
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= 2*18,500= $37,000
Real overhead= 38,000
Over/under allocation= real MOH - allocated MOH
Under allocation= 38,000 - 37,000= 1,000 underallocated
B. Interact with customers after they have purchased the product.
For example, if you are having trouble with a product or it has a malfunction, you would call the customer service for the company/product for assistance.
This would be the captain. If you need any further explaining, defining, or methods of answering, let me know and I'll do my best to help further. :)
<span>$104,500 * 0.04 = $4,180 - $665 = $3,515</span>
Answer:
∑( Cash flow × PVF) = 79,347
Explanation:
Given:
Opportunity cost = 9%
Cash flow for 1-5 years = 10,000
Cash flow for 6-10 years = 16,000
Now,
Present value factor (PVF) = 
here, n is the year
For year 1 to 5
Year Cash flow PVF Cash flow × PVF
1 10000 0.9174 9174
2 10000 0.8417 8417
3 10000 0.7722 7722
4 10000 0.7084 7084
5 10000 0.6499 6499
for years 6 to 10
Year Cash flow PVF Cash flow × PVF
6 16000 0.5963 9540.8
7 16000 0.547 8752
8 16000 0.5019 8030.4
9 16000 0.4604 7366.4
10 16000 0.4224 6758.4
========================================================
∑( Cash flow × PVF) = 79,347
========================================================
taking the PVF to 5 decimal places will make 79,347 ≈ 79,348
