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worty [1.4K]
3 years ago
5

A project has projected values of: unit sales = 1,650, price per unit = $19, variable cost per unit = $7, fixed costs per year =

$4,700. The depreciation is $1,100 a year and the tax rate is 34 percent. What effect would a decrease of $1 in the variable cost per unit have on the operating cash flow? A.-$8.58 B. -$1,089 C. -$912 D. $1,089 E. $912
Business
1 answer:
Lady_Fox [76]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Operating cash flow increases by

Correct option is D $1,089

Explanation:

Current operating cash flow

Sales - Costs = $19 X 1,650  = $31,350 - $11,550 - $4,700 -$1,100 = 14,000

Now less: taxes = $14,000 X 34% = $4,760

Net of taxes income = $14,000 - $4,760 = $9,240

This is operating profit

Operating cash flow = Operating profit + Depreciation = $9,240 + $1,100 = $10,340

In case variable cost is decreased by $1 per unit then

Sales - Costs = $19 X 1,650  = $31,350 - $9,900 - $4,700 -$1,100 = 15,650

Now Less: Taxes = $15,650 X 34% = $5,321

Income net of taxes = $15,650 - $5,321 = $10,329

This is operating profit

Operating cash flow = Operating profit + Depreciation = $10,329 + $1,100 = $11,429

Change in operating cash flow = $11,429 - $10,340 = $1,089

Since this value is $1,089 positive correct option is D

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Two identical firms compete as a Cournot duopoly. The inverse market demand they face is P = 123 - 3Q. The total cost function f
Varvara68 [4.7K]

The price changed in this market will be mathematically given as

P=93

<h3>What is the price change in this market?</h3>

P = 123 - 3Q

Generally, the equation for the statement is  mathematically given as

P = 123 - 3Q

Therefore

\frac{d \pi}{ d \Q1}=123-6Q1-30Q2-3=0

Where

Q1=120-3Q2/6

Hence

Q1=120-3(120-3Q1/6)/6

Q1=13.333

In conclusion,

P = 123 - 3(2*13.333)

P=93

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brainly.com/question/19091385

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5 0
1 year ago
A manager checked production records and found that a worker produced 156 units while working 40 hours. In the previous week, th
andrezito [222]

Answer:

(a) 3.9 units/hour; 3.5 units/hour

(b) 11.43%

Explanation:

(a) Current period productivity:

= Current output ÷ Current labor hours

= 156 units ÷ 40 hours

= 3.9 units per hour

Previous week's productivity:

= Previous week's output ÷ Previous week's labor hours

= 105 units ÷ 30 hours

= 3.5 units per hour

(b) Percentage change in worker's productivity:

= (Change in productivity ÷ Previous week's productivity) × 100

= [(3.9 - 3.5) ÷ 3.5] × 100

= 11.43%

Therefore, the worker's productivity increases by 11.43%.

5 0
3 years ago
Benning Manufacturing Company is negotiating with a customer for the lease of a large machine manufactured by Benning. The machi
romanna [79]

Answer:

beginning inmediately:  $ 140,095.127

after a year:                    $ 152,703.688

with a salvage value:     $ 148,227.912

Explanation:

We need to find the PMT of 980,000 dollars being ordinary annuity or annuity-due discounted at 9%

Annuity-due:

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate}(1+r) = C\\

PV  $980,000.00

time 10

rate 0.09

980000 \div \frac{1-(1+0.09)^{-10} }{0.09} (1.09)= C\\

C  $ 140,095.127

Annuity:

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\

PV  $980,000.00

time 10

rate 0.09

980000 \div \frac{1-(1+0.09)^{-10} }{0.09} = C\\

C  $ 152,703.688

If there is a salvage value, we discounted from the lease value:

980,000 - present value of salvage value:

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  $68,000.0000

time   10.00

rate  0.09

\frac{68000}{(1 + 0.09)^{10} } = PV  

PV   28,723.93

980,000 - 28,724 = 951,276

<u>Now we calculate the PMT:</u>

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\

PV  $951,276.00

time 10

rate 0.09

951276 \div \frac{1-(1+0.09)^{-10} }{0.09} = C\\

C  $ 148,227.912

8 0
3 years ago
Assume that the yen/dollar exchange rate quoted in London at 3:00 p.m. is ×120 = $1, and the New York yen/dollar exchange rate a
Viefleur [7K]

Answer:

This question lacks answers

A. currency swap.

B. arbitrage.

C. backwardation.

D. straddle.

<u>The answer is </u><u>b.</u>

Explanation:

Arbitrage is a common practice used to gain profits from inefficient markets. Since most financial markets are inefficient by nature, dealers and similar business entities that have an interest in this kind of business practice.

The profit in arbitrage is based on the <u>imbalance in the two prices</u> on each market respectively. The term is mainly used for financial markets and various financial instruments (securities, bonds, currencies).

In the example above, the dealer becomes an arbitrageur by making a profit from the difference in the yen/dollar exchange rate in two markets (NY and London.)

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following would tend to shift the supply of dollars in the market for foreign-currency exchange in the open-economy
scoundrel [369]

Answer:

The right answers are either b. or d., or both.

Explanation:

When the dollar loses value, there is higher demand for foreign imports in a country because they become cheaper. When the dollar gains  in value, a foreign country´s exports increase. Changes in the value of currencies reflect changes in demand and supply. An increase in exports will shift the demand curve of the dollar higher. A reduction of imports will have a contrary effect.

5 0
3 years ago
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