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kotegsom [21]
3 years ago
8

Timmy can edit 2 pages in one minute and he can type 80 words in one minute. Olivia can edit 1 page in one minute and she can ty

pe 100 words in one minute. Timmy has an absolute advantage and a comparative advantage in editing, while Olivia has an absolute advantage and a comparative advantage in typing. True or false?
Business
1 answer:
RUDIKE [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

True

Explanation:

A person has comparative advantage in production if he produces at a lower opportunity cost when compared with other people.

A person has absolute advantage in the production of a good or service If he produces more quantity of the good when compared with other people

To calculate comparative advantage, first find the opportunity cost:

Opportunity cost of timmy editing = 80/2=40 words

Opportunity cost of timmy typing = 2 / 80 = 0.025

Opportunity cost of oliva editing = 100/1= 100

Opportunity cost of oliva typing = 1/100=0.01

Olivia has a comparative advantage in typing while timmy has a comparative advantage in editing.

Olivia types more words than timmy, therefore she has an absolute advantage in typing.

Timmy edits more pages than oliva, Therefore, he has am absolute advantage in editing.

I hope my answer helps you

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A study is designed to evaluate how an employee reacts to interruptions when attempting to answer his/her email. After several i
hammer [34]

Answer:

participant perceives deviations but unrelated to researcher

Explanation:

In the case when the study is designed in order to evaluate how an employee reaction for interrupt at the time when an employee attempt to answer his or her email. After various interruption, the design should represent that there is a the participant that perceives the deviation but it is not related to the researcher as the changes responses via participants attach with the deviations

Therefore as per the given situation, the above represent the answer

4 0
3 years ago
On September 30, 2021, Bricker Enterprises purchased a machine for $200,000. The estimated service life is 10 years with a $20,0
vagabundo [1.1K]

Answer:

$38,000

Explanation:

Double-declining-balance method used its ratio by computing depreciation expense. By multiplying it against original cost. To get ratio we simply divide 100% over the life of an asset times 2.

100% / 10 years x 2 = 20%

First, we will compute the 2021 depreciation for us to know our base amount on year 2022.

$200,000 x 20% = $40,000 x3/12 = $10,000

we prorate the annual depreciation expense because part of it is applicable to 2021 and 2022.

For year 2022, we have two ways to compute.

First:

$200,000 x 20% = $40,000 x 9/12 = $30,000 (the portion of the first year’s depreciation that’s for January 1, 2022 to September 30,2022), plus

$200,000 - $40,000 = $160,000 (year 2 net book value)

$160,000 x 20% = 32,000 x 3/12 = $8,000 (portion of second year’s depreciation that for October 01, 2022 to December 31, 2022)

Or second, an alternative way to compute,

2021

$200,000 x 20% = $40,000 x 3/12=$10,000

2022

$200,000 - $10,000 = $190,000 (Net book value)

$190,000 x 20% = $38,000

*Residual value is ignored in computing depreciation expense under double-declining-balance method.

7 0
3 years ago
Jonathan (an individual) owns 100% of the stock of Husky, Inc. (a C corporation) and 100% of the stock of Calhoun, Inc. (another
BaLLatris [955]

Answer: A. As Expenses

B. No treatment.

Explanation:

A. The $100,000 was not structured and a loan so it will be accounted for as EXPENSES. This means that it will be deducted from the Income for the year from Calhoun's books.

B. A C Corporation is by definition taxed SEPARATELY from it's owners in the United States of America. Seeing as both Corporations were C Corporations, Jonathan as the owner of both companies need not worry about how he should treat the $100,000 payment as he will not ne taxed on it.

8 0
3 years ago
On January 1, an investment account is worth 50,000. On May 1, the value has increased to 52,000 and 8,000 of new principal is d
Evgesh-ka [11]

The question is incomplete. The complete question is :

On January 1, an investment account is worth 50,000. On May 1, the value has increased to 52,000 and 8,000 of new principal is deposited. At time t, in years, (4/12 < t < 1) the value of the fund has increased to 62,000 and 10,000 is withdrawn. On January 1 of the next year, the investment account is worth 55,000. The approximate dollar-weighted rate of return (using the simple interest approximation) is equal to the time-weighted rate of return for the year. Calculate t.

Solution :

It is given that :

Worth of investment account on 1st Jan = 50,000

Worth of investment account on 1st Jan next year = 55,000

New principal deposited = 8000

Therefore the interest earned = 55,000 - 50,000 - 8,000 + 10,000

                                                  = 7,000

Therefore,

$\frac{7000}{\frac{50000+16000}{3-10000(1-t)}}= \frac{52}{50} \frac{62}{60} \frac{55}{52} - 1$

                   = 0.13667

7000 = 0.13667(55,333.33 - 10000 + 10000t)

$t=\frac{7000-0.13667(45333.33)}{1366.7}$

    = 0.5885

Thus, time - weighted rate of the return = 0.5885

4 0
3 years ago
(a) Was the depreciation of the Asian currencies during the Asian crisis due to trade flows or capital flows? (b) Why do you thi
LiRa [457]

Explanation:

a) It was due to capital flow.

b)Because of exchange of currencies that takes place between Asia and outside. This lead to decpreciation of Asian currencies and a lot of capital outflow. Unlike capital flow, trade flow does not happen over a short period of time it happens over a large period of time.

3 0
3 years ago
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