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Lelu [443]
3 years ago
12

write the ratio as a percent 6 per 100 , 49 out of 100 , 16 per 100 , 21 out of 100 , 80 per 100 , 93 out of 100​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Arte-miy333 [17]3 years ago
7 0
What the other person said
DedPeter [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

6%, 49%, 16%, 21%, 80%, 93%

Step-by-step explanation:

add the percent sign to each each number (6, 49, 16, 21, 80, and 93).

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All freshmen, sophomores, juniors, and seniors attended a
Trava [24]

Answer:

The probability is .034375 or 11/320

Step-by-step explanation:

the probability of a senior being chose first is 22 (seniors) divided my total number of students (80) is .275 percent.

multiplied by the probability of a sophomore being chosen 10/80 which equals .125.

multiply those together and you get your probability. 0.034375 or 11/320

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What the next step is
miv72 [106K]
Number 1 is correct.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE HELP ASAP! I don’t recall how to do this!
MakcuM [25]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

For a. we start by dividing both sides by 200:

(1.05)^x=1.885

In order to solve for x, we have to get it out from its position of an exponent.  Do that by taking the natural log of both sides:

ln(1.05)^x=ln(1.885)

Applying the power rule for logs lets us now bring down the x in front of the ln:

x * ln(1.05) = ln(1.885)

Now we can divide both sides by ln(1.05) to solve for x:

x=\frac{ln(1.885)}{ln(1.05)}

Do this on your calculator to find that

x = 12.99294297

For b. we will first apply the rule for "undoing" the addition of logs by multipllying:

ln(x*x^2)=5

Simplifying gives you

ln(x^3)=5

Applying the power rule allows us to bring down the 3 in front of the ln:

3 * ln(x) = 5

Now we can divide both sides by 3 to get

ln(x)=\frac{5}{3}

Take the inverse ln by raising each side to e:

e^{ln(x)}=e^{\frac{5}{3}}

The "e" and the ln on the left undo each other, leaving you with just x; and raising e to the power or 5/3 gives you that

x = 5.29449005

For c. begin by dividing both sides by 20 to get:

\frac{1}{2}=e^{.1x}

"Undo" that e by taking the ln of both sides:

ln(.5)=ln(e^{.1x})

When the ln and the e undo each other on the right you're left with just .1x; on the left we have, from our calculators:

-.6931471806 = .1x

x = -6.931471806

Question d. is a bit more complicated than the others.  Begin by turning the base of 4 into a base of 2 so they are "like" in a sense:

(2^2)^x-6(2)^x=-8

Now we will bring over the -8 by adding:

(2^2)^x-6(2)^x+8=0

We can turn this into a quadratic of sorts and factor it, but we have to use a u substitution.  Let's let u=2^x

When we do that, we can rewrite the polynomial as

u^2-6u+8=0

This factors very nicely into u = 4 and u = 2

But don't forget the substitution that we made earlier to make this easy to factor.  Now we have to put it back in:

2^x=4,2^x=2

For the first solution, we will change the base of 4 into a 2 again like we did in the beginning:

2^2=2^x

Now that the bases are the same, we can say that

x = 2

For the second solution, we will raise the 2 on the right to a power of 1 to get:

2^x=2^1

Now that the bases are the same, we can say that

x = 1

5 0
3 years ago
10 m-1n-5 , for m = 10 and n= -2
trasher [3.6K]

Answer:

da answer of da number iz 17

3 0
2 years ago
NEED HELP PLEASE THANK YOU​
KiRa [710]

Answer:

D C

Step-by-step explanation:

first one because you do 5 to left and makes it 5 because its 1 per mile

seound one because go up 7 its at the school.

and sorry i cant see the other ones.

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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