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zubka84 [21]
3 years ago
12

An investment project has an initial cost of $260 and cash flows $75, $105, $100, and $50 for Years 1 to 4, respectively. The co

st of capital is 12 percent. What is the discounted payback period? 3.76 years never 3.42 years 3.68 years 3.92 years
Business
2 answers:
Free_Kalibri [48]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

never

Explanation:

the solution is shown in the file attached

Download docx
ivolga24 [154]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

Year  Cash flows  Present value at 12%  Cumulative Cash flows

0              (260)                   (260)                           (260)

1                  75                    66.96                         (193.04)

2               105                     83.71                          (109.33)

3               100                      71.18                           (38.15)

4                50                      31.78                          (6.37)(Approx).

therefore: the discounted Payback period=Last period with a negative cumulative cash flow+(Absolute value of cumulative cash flows at that period/Cash flow after that period).

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how does money solve the problem of double coincidence of wants? explain with an example of your own.​
slega [8]

Answer:

Money is a medium of exchange and satisfaction of needs.

Explanation:

for instance:- if you want to eat ice cream ( which is your want). You give money to shopkeeper who sell money ( his want is money). You give him money in exchange of ice cream . In this way , double wants are satisfied.

4 0
3 years ago
Flounder Inc. issues 500 shares of $10 par value common stock and 100 shares of $100 par value preferred stock for a lump sum of
ipn [44]

Answer:

a.

Journal Entries

Dr. Cash ___________________$104,000

Cr. Common Stock ___________$5,000

Cr. Preferred stock ___________$10,000

Cr. Paid in capital Common Stock $78,200

Cr. Paid in capital Preferred stock $10,800

b.

Dr. Cash ___________________$104,000

Cr. Common Stock ___________$5,000

Cr. Preferred stock ___________$10,000

Cr. Paid in capital Common Stock $84,000

Cr. Paid in capital Preferred stock $5,000

Explanation:

a.

First, we need to calculate the fair value of each type of shares using the following formula

Fair value  = Numbers of shares x Fair value per share

Fair Value of Common Share = 500 shares x $164 per share = $82,000

Fair value of preferred share = 100 shares x $205 per share = $20,500

Total value of shares = $82,000 + $20,500 = $102,500

Now allocate the Value of $104,000 bases on the fair value

Allocation to

Common stock = $104,000 x $82,000 / $102,500 = $83,200

Preferred stock = $104,000 x $20,500 / $102,500 = $20,800

Now calculate the par values

Par Values

Common stock = 500 shares x $10 = $5,000

Preferred stock = 100 shares x $100 = $10,000

Now calculate the additional paid-in capital

Additional paid-in capital

Common stock = $83,200 - $5,000 = $78,200

Preferred stock = $20,800 - $10,000 = $10,800

b,

Value of common stock = $178 per share x 500 shares = $89,000

Additional paid in capital

Common stock = $89,000 - $5,000 = $84,000

Preferred stock = $104,000 - $89,000 - $10,000 = $10,000

6 0
2 years ago
You see a used sporty car that you would like to own. It costs $9,000 and you would pay 7.2% interest, compounded monthly and fi
bogdanovich [222]

Answer:

$24,705.8

Explanation:

To find the answer, we will use the present value of an annuity formula:

PV = A (1 - (1 + I)^-n / i

Where:

  • PV = Present value of the investment (in thise case, the cost of the car)
  • A = Value of the annuity (the monthly payments)
  • i = Interest Rate
  • n = number of compounding periods

The monthly payments are an annuity: they are periodic, fall under the same interest rate, and have the same value, therefore, if we find the value of the annuity, we will find the value of the first monthly payment at the same time (both things are the same):

Plugging the amounts into the formula we obtain:

9,000 = A ( 1 - (1 + 0.072)^-36 / 0.072

9,000 = A (12.75)

9,000 / 12.75 = A

705.88 = A

Now, to find the full value of the loan, we multiply the annuity value for 36, because that value will be paid 36 times until the loan is completed:

Full value of the loan = 705.88 x 36

                                   = 25,411.68

Finally, to find the loan balance after the first payment, we take the full value of the loan, and substract the value of the annuity from it:

Loan balance after first payment = 25,411.68 - 705.88

                                                      = 24,705.8

3 0
3 years ago
Tim babysits for three hours on the weekend. His current babysitting job pays him $7 an hour. He has a new babysitting job offer
weqwewe [10]
Before going to the cost and benefits, lets take a look first at the total of what Tim makes for the two jobs. In the first job, he is paid $7 per hour for 3 hours so that is $21 total for the first job. The second job offer is $10 per hour for two hours so that is $20 for the entire second job offer. If he is going to take the first job, he will have $1 more than the second job, however, he has to work an extra hour. However, if he takes the second job, he receives $1 less but has one hour more for himself. So if he were to take the second job, it will be more beneficial to him because he can get almost the same amount but doesn't need to work as hard
5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Dillon Products manufactures various machined parts to customer specifications. The company uses a job-order costing system and
love history [14]

Answer:

Dillon Products

1. Journal entries for (a) through (f)

a) Debit Raw Materials Account $325,000

   Credit Accounts Payable $325,000

To record the purchase of raw materials on account.

b) Debit Work in Process $232,000

   Debit Manufacturing overhead $58,000

   Credit Raw materials account $290,000

To record the transfer of raw materials to WIP and Overhead.

c) Debit Work in Process $60,000

   Debit Manufacturing overhead $120,000

   Credit Wages & Salaries $180,000

To record the transfer of labor cost to WIP and Overhead.

d) Debit Manufacturing overhead $75,000

   Credit Depreciation Expense- Equipment $75,000

To record the transfer of depreciation expense to Overhead.

e. Debit Manufacturing Overhead $62,000

   Credit Expenses Payable $62,000

To record other overhead incurred on account.

f. Debit Work In Process $300,000

   Credit Manufacturing Overhead $300,000

To record the overhead applied on the basis of 15,000 machine hours at $20 per machine hour.

2. T-accounts:

Manufacturing overhead

Account Title                   Debit        Credit

Raw materials             $58,000

Wages & Salaries        120,000

Depreciation- Equip.     75,000

Expense Payable          62,000

Work in Process                             $300,000

Finished Goods                                   15,000

Work in Process Account

Account Title                     Debit        Credit

Raw materials account  $232,000

Wages & Salaries               60,000

Manufacturing overhead 300,000

Finished Goods                               $592,000

Finished Goods

Account Title                     Debit        Credit

Work in Process           $592,000

Manufacturing overhead  15,000

3. Journal Entry for item (g):

Debit Finished Goods $607,000

Credit Work in Process $592,000

Credit Manufacturing overhead $15,000

To record the cost of manufactured parts, including the under-applied overhead.

4. Cost of goods sold = 10,000 *$607,000/16,000 = $379,375

(While Ending Inventory = 6,000 *$607,000/16,000 = $227,625.)

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Estimated manufacturing overhead = $4,800,000

Estimated machine hours = 240,000

Overhead rate = $4,800,000/240,000 = $20 per machine hour

Actual cost data for January:

Number of machine parts = 16,000

Raw materials purchased on account = $325,000

Raw materials cost:

 Direct materials = $232,000 (80% of $290,000)

 Indirect materials = $58,000 (20% of $290,000)

Labor cost

 Direct labor = $60,000 ($180,000 * 1/3)

 Indirect labor = $120,000 ($180,000 * 2/3)

Manufacturing overhead:

 Depreciation = $75,000

 Others = $62,000

 Indirect materials = $58,000

 Indirect labor = $120,000

Total actual overhead incurred = $315,000

Machine hours actually worked = 15,000

b) Other Accounts

1. Expenses Payable

Account Title                   Debit        Credit

Manufacturing overhead               62,000

2. Depreciation Expense - Equipment

Account Title                   Debit        Credit

Manufacturing overhead              $75,000

3. Raw Materials Account

Account Title                   Debit        Credit

Accounts Payable      $325,000

Work in Process                             $232,000

Manufacturing overhead                   58,000

4. Accounts Payable

Account Title                   Debit        Credit

Raw Materials                                $325,000

c) The manufacturing overhead applied is $300,000 (15,000 machines hours actually used multiplied by $20 overhead rate), while the actual overhead costs incurred total $315,000.  So there is an under-applied overhead of $15,000 which is charged to Finished Goods in order to obtain the correct cost of 16,000 custom-made machined parts.

7 0
3 years ago
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