Answer:
The thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the pin code on the first try.
Explanation:
Simply, if the ATM card has a 3-digit code that can be repeated, and the board has 9 numbers (for example, from 1 to 9), we must start from the smallest number that could be formed with these numbers to the highest number that these numbers could also compose, which in the case would be 111 and 999. Then, 889 different numbers could be formed (it is the distance between 111 and 999), with which the possibility of hitting the key to the first attempt would be 1 in 889 times, or 1/889.
To take the probability to a percentage, we must know that 889 / 8.89 gives 100. Therefore, dividing 1 / 8.89 we will know the percentage of probabilities of hitting the key on the first attempt: 1 / 8.89 = 0.11.
This shows us that the thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the key on the first try.
Answer:
A. ensure lenders are rapaid.
Answer:
Year 2= $4,687.5
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Purchase price= $34,000
Useful life= 8 years
Salvage value= $9,000
<u>To calculate the depreciation expense under the double-declining-balance, we need to use the following formula:</u>
<u></u>
Annual depreciation= 2*[(book value)/estimated life (years)]
Year 1= [(34,000 - 9,000)/8]*2= $6,250
Year 2= [(25,000 - 6,250)/8]*2= $4,687.5
There is very simple logic between demand and supply. When demand is high, price rises and currency appreciates in its value. On the other hand, price should decline if import rate is mare compared with export rates. As prices of U.S goods increases which ultimately goes to international market where producers have to pay domestic currencies. Americans will demands comparatively less expensive goods. So it will result in supplying more dollars to foreign exchange market.
Finally, increasing demand of pounds. Finally, U.S dollars appreciates and pound depreciates. Trade value is amount by which total import value deviates from export value. Due to changes in interest rates results in trade imbalance in U.S. There is not greater effect on Scotland as it is key player in transporting of energy products to rest of U.K.
Answer:
1. $590
2. $9.83
Explanation:
1.
Total Number of Direct Labor Hours:
= Total Labor Cost ÷ Labor Rate Per Hour
= 150 ÷ 15
= 10 Hours
Total Overheads:
= Total Number of Direct Labor Hours*Predetermined Overhead Rate
= 10 × 21
= 210
Total Manufacturing Cost = 230 + 150 + 210
= $590
2.
Average Cost:
= Total Manufacturing Cost ÷ Number of Units
= 590 ÷ 60
= $9.83
