A1=2
a2=-8
a3=32
a4=-128
a2/a1=(-8)/2→a2/a1=-4
a3/a2=32/(-8)→a3/a2=-4
a4/a3=(-128)/32→a4/a3=-4
a2/a1=a3/a2=a4/a3=r=-4
an=a1*r^(n-1)
an=2*(-4)^(n-1)
The explicit rule for the nth term of the given sequence is an=2*(-4)^(n-1)
Answer:
Yes, it is.
Step-by-step explanation:
ALSO, YO THANK YOU FOR GETTING ME TO GENIUS.
Answer:
This is easy -- it's just a list of steps. At this level, the problems are pretty simple.
Let's just do one, then I'll write out the list of steps for you.
Find the inverse of f( x ) = -( 1 / 3 )x + 1
STEP 1: Stick a "y" in for the "f(x)" guy:
y = -( 1 / 3 )x + 1
STEP 2: Switch the x and y
( because every (x, y) has a (y, x) partner! ):
x = -( 1 / 3 )y + 1
STEP 3: Solve for y:
x = -( 1 / 3 )y + 1 ... multiply by 3 to ditch the fraction ... 3x = -y + 3 ... ditch the +3 ... subtract 3 from both sides ... 3x - 3 = -y ... multiply by -1 ... -3x + 3 = y ... y = -3x + 3
STEP 4: Stick in the inverse notation, f^( -1 )( x )
f^( -1 )( x ) = -3x + 3
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
I believe it's 40/ 20 I'm sorry if it's wrong..
