Answer:
This question is incomplete, the options are missing and the word "and" between the gaps is wrong and should not be there.
The options are the following:
a) Marginal revenue
b) Average revenue
c) Variable cost
d) Fixed cost
And the correct answer is the option A: Marginal revenue.
Explanation:
To begin with, in the microeconomics theory the marginal analysis is very well known for being one of the reasons why the price is determined in the markets under the laws of economic sciences. Moreover, this marginal analysis focus on the interaction between all the curves that represents the costs and revenues that are related to the consumer of a good or service in a particular market. In the graphic, the point where the marginal cost curve equals the marginal revenue curve is where the profit maximizing quantity demanded and the price are the same and therefore those are the equilibrium numbers.
Answer:
Sales, Purchases, Cash, Income Statement
Explanation:
The Budgeting Process Starts with determining the <em>Number of Units</em> that need to be <em>sold</em>.Then the <em>Production Budget</em> is prepared to determine the number of units which need <em>to produced</em> to meet the sales.Within the <em>production Budget</em> we can establish the amount of <em>Purchases</em> the firm need to make <em>to satisfy</em> <em>production</em>.A <em>Cash Budget</em> is then prepared to establish Balances of cash from inflows (sales budget) and outflows (purchases budget). then Lastly the Income Statement.
Answer:
C. To ensure secrecy and security regarding the company's actions
Explanation:
Ensuring secrecy and security regarding the company's actions is not one of the principles of corporate public relations that a company should follow.
Answer:
source-
One of the most common predictive models is the waterfall model. It assumes various phases in the SDLC that can occur sequentially, which implies that one phase leads into the next phase. In simple words, in waterfall model, all the phases take place one at a time and do not overlap one another.
in your own words-
One of the foremost common prognostic models is that the falls model. It assumes varied phases within the SDLC which will occur consecutive, which suggests that one section leads into following section. In straightforward words, in falls model, all the phases occur one at a time and don't overlap each other.
Explanation:
source is where i got the imformation and the in your own words is it fully rewritten, sorry its a bit lengthy and hope this helps have a god day/night/noon! :)
Answer:
The WACC before bond issuance is 3.9% and the WACC after bond issuance is 3.71%
Explanation:
In order to calculate the WACC before bond issuance
, we would have to calculate first the cost of equity using capital asset pricing model
.
So Using CAPM we have Rf + Beta x Market risk premium
=
0.5% + 0.85 * 4%
= 3.9%
. cost of equity
Therefore WACC before bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)
= 3.9%
. WACC before bond issuance will be equal to cost of equity in this case as there is no debt issue.
In order to calculate the WACC after bond issuance we make the following calculation:
WACC after bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)
= (3.9% x 0.9) + (2% x 0.1)
= 3.51% + 0.2%
= 3.71%
