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nydimaria [60]
3 years ago
13

You want to put some money in a simple interest account.it pays 6% interst annually for 2 years . you would like to earn $750 in

interest. how much money do you need to put in.
PLEASE HELP ME WITH THIS~!!
Mathematics
1 answer:
murzikaleks [220]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

  $6,250

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the simple interest formula and fill in the numbers you are given.

  I = Prt

  750 = P(.06)(2)

  750/0.12 = P = 6,250 . . . . . divide by the coefficient of P

You need to put in $6,250 to earn $750 in interest.

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153000 in standard form?
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Sam has two coupons for a bicycle. coupon A: $20 rebate on a $95 bicycle. coupon B: 25% off a $95 bicycle. choose the coupon tha
ANTONII [103]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2\%2%2, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector rando
kipiarov [429]

The data in the question seems a bit erroneous. I am writing the correct question below:

A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2%, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector randomly selects 4 chips for an inspection. Assuming the chips are independent, what is the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective? Lets break this problem up into smaller pieces to understand the strategy behind solving it.

Answer:

The probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective is 0.0776.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question states that the probability of defective chips is 2% i.e. 0.02. Let p denote the probability of selecting a defective chip so, p = 0.02

An inspector selects 4 chips, which means n=4 and we need to compute the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective. Let X be the number of defective chips selected. We need to compute P(X≥1) which means either 1, 2, 3 or 4 chips can be defective.

We will use the binomial distribution formula to solve this problem. The formula is:

<u>P(X=x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ</u>

where n = total no. of trials

          p = probability of success

          x = no. of successful trials

          q = probability of failure = 1-p

we have n=4, p=0.02 and q=1-0.02=0.98.

We need to compute P(X≥1) which is equal to:

P(X≥1) = P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4)

A shorter method to do this is to use the total probability theorem:

P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X<1)

          = 1 - P(X=0)

          = 1 - ⁴C₀ (0.02)⁰(0.98)⁴⁻⁰

          = 1 - (0.98)⁴

          = 1 - 0.9224

P(X≥1) = 0.0776

4 0
4 years ago
The librarian purchased 22 copies of a best-selling book for $385.66.
kow [346]

Answer:

$17.53

Step-by-step explanation:

$385.66 divided by 22 equals the how much each book cost

5 0
3 years ago
Please help with my math
AleksAgata [21]
$1.44

each one cost 0.24
0.24 x 6 = 1.44
7 0
3 years ago
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