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natka813 [3]
4 years ago
14

The Jolliff family went on a vacation. While in vacation, they

Mathematics
1 answer:
yanalaym [24]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$19

Step-by-step explanation:

59.50-21.50=38

38/2=19

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Answer:

.82B

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm hoping you're asking to reduce the price by 18% once, because I'm not sure if that's your question, but it would be .82B. Which is 82% of the original price.

7 0
4 years ago
Instructions: Find the Measure of the indicated angle to the<br> nearest degree.
motikmotik

Answer:

? = 35

Step-by-step explanation:

Since this is a right triangle, we can use trig functions

tan ? = opp /adj

tan ? = 33/48

Take the inverse tan of each side

tan ^ -1 ( tan ? ) = tan ^ -1 ( 33/48)

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7 0
3 years ago
russ and vickie are trying to solve this problem . there are 146students taknig buses to the museum . if each bus holds 24 stude
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You divide 146 from 24 and get 6 with a few extra students, so you add another bus for those students, meaning 7 buses are needed total.
8 0
4 years ago
Let f(x) = (x − 1)2, g(x) = e−2x, and h(x) = 1 + ln(1 − 2x). (a) Find the linearizations of f, g, and h at a = 0. What do you no
sweet [91]

Answer:

Lf(x) = Lg(x) = Lh(x) =  1 - 2x

value of the functions and their derivative are the same at x = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :

f(x) = (x − 1)^2,  

g(x) = e^−2x ,  

h(x) = 1 + ln(1 − 2x).

a) Determine Linearization of  f, g and h  at a = 0

L(x) = f (a) + f'(a) (x-a)  ( linearization of <em>f</em> at <em>a</em> )

<u>for f(x) = (x − 1)^2   </u>

f'(x ) = 2( x - 1 )

at x = 0

f' = -2  

hence the Linearization at a = 0

Lf (x) = f(0) + f'(0) ( x - 0 )

Lf (x) = 1 -2 ( x - 0 ) = 1 - 2x

<u>For g(x) = e^−2x </u>

g'(x) = -2e^-2x

at x = 0

g(0) = 1

g'(0) = -2e^0 = -2

hence linearization at a = 0

Lg(x) = g ( 0 ) + g' (0) (x - 0 )

Lg(x) = 1 - 2x

<u>For h(x) = 1 + ln(1 − 2x).</u>

h'(x) =  -2 / ( 1 - 2x )

at x = 0

h(0) = 1

h'(0) = -2

hence linearization at a = 0

Lh(x) = h(0) + h'(0) (x-0)

        = 1 - 2x

<em>Observation and reason</em>

The Linearization is the same in every function i.e. Lf(x) = Lg(x) = Lh(x) this is because the value of the functions and their derivative are the same at x = 0

8 0
3 years ago
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