Answer:
I don't know how to help either I need the same answers as you pls
Answer:
The correct answer is A) 4/663.
Step-by-step explanation:
First you find the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards. Since there are 4 queens(the queen of diamond, the queen of hearts, the queen of spades, and the queen of clubs) in a deck of 52 cards, the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards is 4/52.
Next you find the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards(since you did not replace the first card you drew). Since there are 4 kings(the king of diamond, the king of hearts, the king of spades, and the king of clubs) in a deck of cards, the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards is 4/51.
Then you multiply the two probabilities to determine the probability of drawing a queen then a king. So,
4/52 x 4/51 =
4 x 4/52 x 51 =
16/2652
Finally, simplify the fraction. The greatest number that can go into both the numerator and denominator is 4. So divide both the numerator and denominator by 4. When you do this, you get the following:
16 divided by 4 = 4 as the numerator and
2652 divided by 4 = 663 as denominator.
So, the final answer is 4/663.
Answer:
The amount becomes $6964.53 after 3 years .
Step-by-step explanation:
Formula
Where P is the principle , r is the rate of interest in the decimal form and t is the time in the years .
As given
Earl invested 6,000 in a money market account that pays 5% interest quarterly for 3 years .
P = $6000
5% is written in the decimal form.
= 0.05
r = 0.05
t = 3 years
Putting all the values in the formula
Therefore the amount becomes $6964.53 after 3 years .
She will get about 151.4 euros when she converts it.
Answer:
provide the value of B and C
