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zvonat [6]
3 years ago
5

A 10-year bond pays an annual coupon, its YTM is 8%, and it currently trades at a premium. Which of the following statements is

CORRECT? a. The bond's current yield is less than 8%. b. If the yield to maturity remains at 8%, then the bond's price will decline over the next year. c. The bond's coupon rate is less than 8%. d. If the yield to maturity increases, then the bond's price will increase. e. If the yield to maturity remains at 8%, then the bond's price will remain constant over the next year.
Business
1 answer:
cricket20 [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

If the yield to maturity remains at 8%, then the bond's price will decline over the next year.

Explanation:

When the bonds sells at a premium it means that the coupon payment is greater than the yield to maturity, which means that the income generated by the bond is greater than return required by the investor and because of this the bond sells at a premium because the investor is willing to pay more for the bond as it offers more income than its required rate of return. With a premium the bond price increases to a point where the coupon and required return become equal. When the bond has 10 years to maturity it means that it will give 10 equal payments to the investor which will be greater than the investors required return therefore the investor will be willing to pay a higher price for the bond, as the maturity decreases the number of payments which will be higher than the required return also decrease, so for example if there are 5 years to maturity then the bond will pay 5 payments that are greater than the required return so the investor will be paying a lower premium compared to when he was getting 10 payments that payed more than his required return.

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Which of the following is NOT one of the three big categories for periodic evaluations:
Lilit [14]

The category that does not belong to the periodic evaluation is Change Analysis.

Option D is the correct answer.

<h3>What is a periodic evaluation?</h3>

Periodic evaluation is a technique that is totally developmental in nature and disregards the formal advice relating to tenure, retention, or promotion of employees.

Periodic evaluation has three broad categories namely, hazard analysis, safety, and health-related inspections, and evaluation relating to personal protective equipment (PPE).

Therefore, out of the provided options, Change analysis is not considered a category for periodic evaluation.

Learn more about the periodic evaluation. in the related link;

brainly.com/question/17095233

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4 0
2 years ago
There are two parties in any lease contract—the lessee and the lessor. To a lessor, a lease analysis involves a capital budgetin
inn [45]

Answer:

a, b

Explanation:

It is important to note that a lessor's goal is to make a profit, thus he would be more concerned about knowing what is the value realized after subtracting the lease payments from his income taxes and any maintenance expenses that must be incurred as per the lease agreement.

In order to be cost efficient, he might as well determine the net cash outlay of the lease agreement.

4 0
3 years ago
If price is greater than average variable cost and less than average total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity of output in t
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

produce at an economic loss.

Explanation:

In a perfect competition, there are many buyers and sellers of homogeneous products, and there is free entry and exit in the market.

This simply means that, in a perfectly competitive market, there are many buyers and sellers (price takers) of homogeneous products (standardized products with substitute) and the market is free (practically open) to all individuals or business entities that are willing to trade all their goods and services.

In a perfectly competitive market in long-run equilibrium, a long-run equilibrium avails firms the opportunity to adjust all inputs and all fixed costs are maximized. Also, it's characterized by free entry and exit, as such there isn't a fixed number of firms. This simply means that, since the number of firms in a long-run equilibrium can change, a firm must exit the market as a result of losses i.e when the firm is unable to cover its fixed costs in the long-run while new firms are allowed entry into the market when it anticipates potential profits or gains.

However, the firms always strive to maximize profits by increasing their level of output, such that P = MC. Also, the firms wouldn't be willing to leave or enter into the market because they are not making any profit, such that P=AC.

In a nutshell, in the long run equilibrium P=MR=MC and P=AC.

Hence, if price is greater than average variable cost and less than average total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity of output in the short run, a perfectly competitive firm will produce at an economic loss.

Additionally, Average Total Cost (ATC) can be defined as the overall cost of production divided by total output of production. It is calculated by dividing total cost by total output of production or by adding TVC and TFC.

8 0
3 years ago
What does it mean if a company has a debt ratio of 101.5%?
7nadin3 [17]

Explanation:

Debt ratio is basically the ratio between the total debts and the total assets of a company. It shows the percentage of total debts of the company in accordance or in comparison of the total assets. If the debt ratio is high, it means the company has more liabilities than the assets. Higher debt ratio may lead a company towards default.

In this question, 101.5% debt ratio means the total liabilities of the company are 1.5% more than the total assets of the company. This shows that the company's debt ratio is high. Liabilities are more than the assets. In this situation, a company is considered at a risk if precautionary measures are not taken immediately.

6 0
3 years ago
Which example envolves a real world restriction that can affect your decision making process?
lbvjy [14]
I think the answer is family disputes
7 0
3 years ago
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