Based on the economic and financial analysis, the main reason for considering <u>nonconstant growth</u> in dividends is to allow for "<u>Supernormal</u>" growth rates over "<u>some finite length of time</u>."
This is because, in nonconstant growth, the growth rate cannot surpass the mandatory return indefinitely.
However, there is the probability that it could do so for some number of years.
Also, it should be noted that in this situation, the value of the stock equates to the present value of all the future dividends.
Hence, in this case, it is concluded that the correct answer is <u>supernormal</u> and <u>some finite length of time</u>.
Learn more here: brainly.com/question/13223703
Answer: Please see answer in explanatory column
Explanation:Classifying each according to cash flow activity in terms of operating, investing, or financing activity gives
(a) Purchase of equipment.-----investing activity
(b) Sale of building.-----investing activity
(c) Redemption of bonds.-----financing activity
(d) Cash received from sale of goods. ------investing activity
(e) Payment of dividends.-------financing activity
(f) Issuance of capital stock. -------financing activity
Answer:
Multi-level marketing.
Explanation:
A business organization that is run with multi-level marketing strategy typically has 3 sources of income:
- The amount of money that each person have to pay in order to gain the membership status.
- The amount of money that memberships owners have to pay to be a distributor of their product
- The amount of money that they get from the sales of their product.
Most multi-level marketing companies will provide their members with some sort of 'Reward' if they managed to convert other people into purchasing memberships to organization. So, the more their members convert other people, the more wealthy that members will be. This will create a hierarchy like within an organization where the members who bring the most memberships place at the top of the hierarchy.
Answer:
C $1,104
Explanation:
TIPS are the form of bonds which are specially designed for the purpose to protect the investors against the inflation.
The principal value of the bond in case of TIPS is adjusted for yearly inflation.
Based on the above discussion the value of TIPS bond can be calculated using the below formula:
Value of bond at maturity=Principal amount (1+inflation rate)^5
=1,000(1+2%)^5
=1,104
So the answer is C $1,104
The correct answer would be B. Depreciation
