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3 years ago

chris invests $14,000 at 4% simple interest for 2 year. How much is in the account at the end of the 2 years period?

1 answer:

4 0

Hi there,

Principle Amount = $14000

Interest for 1 year = 4% x 14000 = 0.04 x 14000 = $560
Interest for 2 years = 560 x 2 = $1120

Total amount at the end of the period = $14000 + $1120 = $15120

Answer: $15120

Hope it helps,
TF

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In a Match 6 Lotto, winning the jackpot requires that you select six different numbers from 1 to 49, and that the same six numbe

zimovet [89]

Answer:

$P=\frac{1}{13,983,816}=7.2\ x\ 10^{-8}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the following characteristics of the problem:

The numbers that are selected are different between 1 and 49. This means that the same number is not repeated twice.

The order in which the selected numbers appear does not matter:

This means that (123) = (312)

With this in mind, we know that it is a problem of combinations without repetition. It is not calculated using permutations because in the permutations the order of selection is important, for example: (123) is not equal to (312)

The formula for calculating combinations without repetition is:

$nCr=\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}$

Where n is the number of "elements" you can choose and choose r from them

In this case:

n=49

r=6

So:

$49C6=\frac{49!}{6!(49-6)!}$

$49C6=13,983,816\ outcomes$

There are 13,983,816 possible results

This is the best method to calculate the number of possible outcomes.

"Besides your method, is there another method to determine the number of outcomes?"

Sure, make a list of the 13,983,816 different sets of 6 numbers.

To win it is necessary to obtain the 6 winning numbers in any order. The number of ways this can occur is calculated by combining 6 in 6

$6C6=\frac{6!}{6!(6-6)!}=1$

Finally the probability of winning is:

$P=\frac{1}{13,983,816}=7.2\ x\ 10^{-8}$

Note that the probability of winning is very close to 0. It is practically impossible to win the lottery, you will probably never win anything. Therefore it is better not to invest money in this

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3 years ago

Can you form a triangle with these given side lengths? 12 , 8 , 16 Please help me!!!!

Scilla [17]

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

12+8>16

the two short sides have to be greater than the longest dude when combined and that is true so you can form a triangle

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3 years ago

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Semmy [17]

Answer:

6(8x-3)x(3x²-7)

Step-by-step explanation:

144x³-54x²-336x+126

=6(24x³-9x²-56x+21)

=6(3x²x(8x-3)-7(8x-3))

=6(8x-3)x(3x²-7)

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3 years ago

The expression -5p + 20 factored is factor out the coefficient of the variable

krek1111 [17]

Answer: -5(p-4)

Step-by-step explanation: The coefficient of a variable is the number multiplying it. To factor it, take the coefficient out and put it outside the parantheses. However, if you do that, make sure you take that coefficient out of all of your other terms!

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3 years ago

The weight of the chocolate and Hershey Kisses are normally distributed with a mean of 4.5338 G and a standard deviation of 0.10

Salsk061 [2.6K]

For the bell-shaped graph of the normal distribution of weights of Hershey kisses, the area under the curve is 1, the value of the median and mode both is 4.5338 G and the value of variance is 0.0108.

In the given question,

The weight of the chocolate and Hershey Kisses are normally distributed with a mean of 4.5338 G and a standard deviation of 0.1039 G.

We have to find the answer of many question we solve the question one by one.

From the question;

Mean(μ) = 4.5338 G

Standard Deviation(σ) = 0.1039 G

(a) We have to find for the bell-shaped graph of the normal distribution of weights of Hershey kisses what is the area under the curve.

As we know that when the mean is 0 and a standard deviation is 1 then it is known as normal distribution.

So area under the bell shaped curve will be

$\int\limits^{\infty}_{-\infty} {f(x)} \, dx$ = 1

This shows that that the total area of under the curve.

(b) We have to find the median.

In the normal distribution mean, median both are same. So the value of median equal to the value of mean.

As we know that the value of mean is 4.5338 G.

So the value of median is also 4.5338 G.

In the normal distribution mean, mode both are same. So the value of mode equal to the value of mean.

As we know that the value of mean is 4.5338 G.

So the value of mode is also 4.5338 G.

(d) we have to find the value of variance.

The value of variance is equal to the square of standard deviation.

So Variance = $(0.1039)^2$

Variance = 0.0108

Hence, the value of variance is 0.0108.

To learn more about normally distribution link is here

brainly.com/question/15103234

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1 year ago