This is unanswerable without the full amount of her paycheck.
Answer: P(5A) = 0
Step-by-step explanation:
There are four aces in total in a 52 card deck. Therefore the probability of getting 5 aces can be expressed as;
P(5A) = 4/52 × 3/51 × 2/50 × 1/49 × 0/48 = 0
Therefore, it is impossible to get 5 aces from a standard 52 cards deck
Answer:
-$2.63
Step-by-step explanation:
Calculation for the expected profit for one spin of the roulette wheel with this bet
Based on the information given you bet $50 on 00 while the standard roulette has 38 possible outcomes which means that the probability or likelihood of getting 00 will be 1/38.
Therefore when we get an 00, we would get the amount of $1,750 with a probability of 1/38 and in a situation where were we get something other than 00 this means we would lose $50 with a probability of 37/38.
Now let find the Expected profit using this formula
Expected profit = sum(probability*value) -sum(probability*value)
Let plug in the formula
Expected profit =($1,750 * 1/38) - ($50 * 37/38)
Expected profit=($1,750*0.026315)-($50×0.973684)
Expected profit= 46.05 - 48.68
Expected profit = - $2.63
Therefore the expected profit for one spin of the roulette wheel with this bet will be -$2.63
Answer:
791.68 cm/s
Step-by-step explanation:
The volume flow rate can be interpreted as the integral of fluid velocity over area
![\dot{V} = \int\limits^6_0 {v(r) 2\pi r} \, dr\\\dot{V} = 2\pi\int\limits^6_0 {(25-r^2)r} \, dr\\\dot{V} = 2\pi\int\limits^6_0 {25r-r^3} \, dr\\\\\dot{V} = 2\pi[12.5r^2 - r^4/4]_0^6\\\dot{V} = 2\pi(12.5*6^2 - 6^4/4 - 12.5*0 - 0)\\\dot{V} = 2\pi*126 = 791.68 cm/s](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdot%7BV%7D%20%3D%20%5Cint%5Climits%5E6_0%20%7Bv%28r%29%202%5Cpi%20r%7D%20%5C%2C%20dr%5C%5C%5Cdot%7BV%7D%20%3D%202%5Cpi%5Cint%5Climits%5E6_0%20%7B%2825-r%5E2%29r%7D%20%5C%2C%20dr%5C%5C%5Cdot%7BV%7D%20%3D%202%5Cpi%5Cint%5Climits%5E6_0%20%7B25r-r%5E3%7D%20%5C%2C%20dr%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cdot%7BV%7D%20%3D%202%5Cpi%5B12.5r%5E2%20-%20r%5E4%2F4%5D_0%5E6%5C%5C%5Cdot%7BV%7D%20%3D%202%5Cpi%2812.5%2A6%5E2%20-%206%5E4%2F4%20-%2012.5%2A0%20-%200%29%5C%5C%5Cdot%7BV%7D%20%3D%202%5Cpi%2A126%20%3D%20791.68%20cm%2Fs)
Answer:
5hours
Step-by-step explanation:
10:15 - 05:15 = 5 hours
Thsi means that local time in Philippines is 5 hours ahead of local time in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
The time can be interpreted as follows ; At a certain time in the Philippines, say 10:15 am in the morning, At this verh point in the Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, the time will be :
(10:15 - 5 hours) = 05:15
