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Fudgin [204]
3 years ago
6

A revolving credit agreement is a formal line of credit. The firm must generally pay a fee on the unused balance of the committe

d funds to compensate the bank for the commitment to extend those funds. a. True b. False
Business
1 answer:
Shalnov [3]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

A revolving credit agreement is a line of credit, that is, a default limit that a firm can use to borrow money as much as possible until this limit is reached. The firm will have to pay the bank for a commitment to lend or extend such funds. The bank will also put some factors about the firm's ability to pay into consideration before revolving credit can be used.

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If the ending inventory in the previous period was understated $17,000 and the ending inventory in the current period was overst
kotegsom [21]

Answer:

In the current period,

b. Cost of goods sold

Explanation:

With the current period's beginning inventory (or previous period's ending inventory) understated by $17,000 and the overstatement of the current period's ending inventory by $27,000, it implies that the Cost of goods sold is understated by $10,000.  Once this cost is understated, the net income will be overstated, as well as the owner's equity (via the retained earnings).

4 0
2 years ago
Bringham Company issues bonds with a par value of $540,000 on their stated issue date. The bonds mature in 6 years and pay 9% an
Vladimir [108]

Answer:

1. $24,300

2. 12

3. the bond is trading at a discount.

4. $470,090.86

5. <u>Journal Entry</u>

Cash $470,090.86 (debit)

Bond Payable $470,090.86 (credit)

Explanation:

<u>1. seml-annual Interest payment</u>

Seml-annual Interest payment = ($540,000 × 9 %) ÷ 2

                                                  = $24,300

<u>2. Number of seml-annual Interest payment</u>

Number of seml-annual Interest payment = 6 years × 2

                                                                     = 12

<u>3. Issue</u>

The annual market rate for the bonds (YTM) ,  12% is greater than the coupon rate of the bond 9%.

The Price will be less than the par value and we say that the bond is trading at a discount.

<u>4. Computation of the Issue Price, PV</u>

PMT = $24,300

n = 12

YTM = 12 %

FV = $540,000

p/yr = 2

PV = ?

Using a Financial Calculator, the Issue Price, PV is $470,090.86

<u>5. Journal Entry</u>

Cash $470,090.86 (debit)

Bond Payable $470,090.86 (credit)

4 0
3 years ago
An artisan who creates customized furniture has a customer who is interested in purchasing several pieces of furniture. The arti
koban [17]

Answer:

2) Set the price of each piece of furniture equal to the marginal cost of producing it.

Explanation:

What happens in two-part tariff is that the producer recovers the entire cost of producing by charging price equal to the marginal cost.

This helps him recover cost and the entire fee the producer charges results in profits eventually. Hence, the profits is the consumer 'surplus' that we calculate given that the price of product is equal to marginal cost.

So answer here is 2- Set the price of each piece of furniture equal to the marginal cost of producing it.

8 0
3 years ago
To record a customer's check in full payment for a sale that was made the prior month, the company should debit the ____________
bearhunter [10]

To record a customer's check in full payment for a sale that was made the prior month, the company should debit the payable cash account.

<h3>Payable cash account</h3>

Based on the information given the appropriate journal entry to record a customer's check in full payment for a sale is:

Journal entry

Debit Payable Cash account

Credit Sales accounts

(To record customer's check in full payment)

Inconclusion to record a customer's check in full payment for a sale that was made the prior month, the company should debit the payable cash account.

Learn more about payable cash account here:brainly.com/question/4656883

6 0
2 years ago
LUVFINANCE, Inc. is estimating its WACC. It is operating at its optimal capital structure. Its outstanding bonds have a 12 perce
11111nata11111 [884]

Answer:

9.72%

Explanation:

Maturity = 34

Par-value = -1000

Coupon rate = 6%

Coupon PMT = -60

Value of bond = 1152

Semi-annual Yield = Rate(34, -60, 1162, -1000, 0, 0)

Semi-annual Yield = 5.00%

Annual Yield = 10%

Tax rate = 40%

After tax cost of debt = 10*(1-0.4)= 6%: Add: Flotation cost (5%) = 11%

Cost of preferred stock = Dividend/Price = 12/120 = 10%

Cost of equity = Risk free rate + Beta*Market risk premium

Cost of equity = 3.72 + 0.94*6

Cost of equity = 9.36%

Particulars  Value per    No of        Market   Weight  Cost of     Product

                    security    securities     value                    security

Bonds             1162       100000     116200000   0.15784   11          1.736213

P. stock           120        1000000  120000000  0.16299   10         1.62999

Equity              100        5000000 <u>500000000</u> <u>0.6792</u>   9.36       <u>6.35697</u>

                                                       736200000     1                         <u>9.72317</u>

So, the WACC of the firm is 9.72%

3 0
3 years ago
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