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DerKrebs [107]
4 years ago
11

True or false: a fitted model with more predictors will necessarily have a lower training set error than a model with fewer pred

ictors.
Business
1 answer:
Hunter-Best [27]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

False. See expplanation below.

Explanation:

Training error by definition is the "error that you get when you run the trained model back on the training data."

False

Sometimes if we have more predictors than the neccesary we create bias and other problems like multicolinearity between the independnet variables. The idea is have a parsimonious model with the ideal number of variables and not with too much or too low variables.

For example we can have a linear model with just one predictor adjusted to the response variable perfect. And we can have another model with the same response variable but with 10 predictors with the same correlation and significance.

Always is important to understand the context of a problem in order to select the predictors to estimate the response variable in order to don't overestimate the number of parameters neccesary to use.

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A corporate treasury working out of Vienna with operations in New York simultaneously calls Citibank in New York City and Barcla
WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

Given $1 million and the following quotes:

Bank C - $0.7551-61/€

Bank B - $0.7545-75/€

There are two different arbitrage strategies that can be attempted. The first is to buy euros from bank B, and then sell them to bank C:

Buy euros Bank B:

Euros to be bought = $1,000,000 x  Euro / $ 0.7575

Euros to be bought = 1,320,132.01 Euros

Sell euros Bank C:

Euros to be sold = 1,320,132.01 euros x $0.7551 / Euro

Euros to be sold = $996,831.68

The profit/loss can be calculated by subtracting the original starting amount of dollars by the post-arbitrage amount:

Profit/loss = $996,831.68 - $1,000,000

Profit/loss = -$3,168.32

The second strategy involves buy euros from bank C and selling them to bank B: Buy euros Bank C:

Euros to be bought = $1,000,000 x  Euro / $ 0.7561

Euros to be bought = 1,322,576.38 Euros

Sell euros Bank B:

Euros to be sold = 1,322,576.38 euro x 0.7545 / Euro

Euros to be sold = $997,883.88

The profit/loss can be calculated by subtracting the original starting amount of dollars by the post-arbitrage amount:

Profit/loss = $997,883.88 - $1,000,000

Profit/loss = -$2,116.12

In both instances a loss is made by the arbitrage. The arbitrager cannot make a profit using these quotes.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Joe is shopping for a new computer. a computer can be delivered to joe's home for $1,200. alternatively, you can pick up the sam
Juliette [100K]
I found the problem at https://www.coursepaper.com/econ-81640/


The choices were;
A. Joe should drive to the warehouse because $1,000 is less than $1,200.
B. Joe should drive to the warehouse if his cost of driving to the warehouse is less than $200.
C. Joe should drive to the warehouse if his cost of driving to the warehouse is greater than $200.
D. Joe should drive to the warehouse because the $200 he would save by driving to the warehouse is more than 10% of the purchase price.

The best answer would be letter d. Joe should drive to the warehouse because the $200 he would save by driving to the warehouse is more than 10% of the purchase price.

Joe can save more if he rather drives his purchased computer to his home than have a delivery. The cost of delivery was too high.

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following best describes a matrix organization?
lara31 [8.8K]
I believe the answer is...... B
7 0
4 years ago
In the long run, if inputs are increased by 10 percent and output increases by 20 percent, then __________ are said to exist.
SCORPION-xisa [38]

Answer:

I dont know how this works but did u try 30

Explanation:

I thing bc your saying increase your adding on to soo yeah....

8 0
3 years ago
Income elasticity of demand measures:
natita [175]

Answer:1) how responsive quantity demanded is to changes in income--A                  2) income elasticity of demand for butter is 0.11. That means butter is a luxury good---A

Explanation:

1) Income elasticity of demand refers to the responsiveness of the quantity demanded for a certain good to a change in income of consumers who purchase this good.The higher the income elasticity of a good,  the greater the consumers' response in their purchasing lifestyle.

The  formula for Income elasticity of demands given by

The percent change in quantity demanded divided by the percent change in income.

2) Income elasticity of demand, helps us to identify  if a particular good represents a necessity or a luxury.

-when the income elasticity for a good is less than 1(ie from 0-1) we say that the good is a normal good. these goods are also called necessity goods and consumers will purchase them irrespective of the changes in their  income eg water, electricity

- when the income elasticity of a good is greater than 1 , we say that  the good is a luxury good. eg butter

- An inferior good is one with a negative income elasticity  which means  rising incomes will lead to a drop in demand.

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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