Answer:
Explanation:
The journal entry is shown below:
Supplies expense A/c Dr $1,700
To Supplies A/c $1,700
(Being supplies account is adjusted)
The supplies expense is computed below
= Purchase value of supplies - supplies on hand at year end
= $2,100 - $400
= $1,700
For recording, this given transaction we debited the supplies expense account as the remaining balance is transferred to supplies expense and credited the supplies account
Answer:
The quota system is not efficient since the total supply is less than the equilibrium quantity. This will produce a deadweight loss which equals the lost supplier surplus plus the lost consumer surplus. The deadweight loss s the area between the demand and supply curve, and between the imposed quota and the equilibrium quantity.
Graph 1 shows the market equilibrium while graph 2 shows the deadweight loss.
For equipment purchased from the United States, European businesses will pay less in euros.
<h3>What would happen if the US dollar increased in value relative to the euro?</h3>
The dollar now "buys" more euros if the exchange rate between the two currencies rises to $1 for 0.94€. As a result, purchasing European items is now more affordable. As U.S.-made goods are now more expensive, U.S. exports would decrease while imports from nations that use the euro would increase.
<h3>What causes the value of the US dollar to rise?</h3>
An increase in the value of one currency in comparison to another is known as currency appreciation. For a variety of factors, including governmental policies, interest rates, trade balances, and business cycles, currencies appreciate against one another.
learn more about dollar is said to appreciate against the euro here brainly.com/question/13825174
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Answer:
A. 6.82%
Explanation:
Yield to Maturity is a discounting rate which equals all the cash outflows related to bond with the present /current market value of bond. YTM is calculated by trial and error method. Since the options are available in the question, we can use those options to find out correct YTM.
First we are taking YTM 6.82%
Semi-annual YTM = 3.41%
Coupon Interest semi annual = 1000*5.2%*1/2
= $26
No of times interest paid = 10*2
= 20
Present Value of bond
= Coupon Interest*PVIFA (YTM, 20) + Par Value x PVIF (YTM, 20)
= 26*PVIFA (3.41%, 20) + 1000*PVIF(3.41%, 20)
= (26*14.32884) + (1,000*0.511386)
= 372.55 + 511.39
= $884
At YTM 6.82% all the future cash flows of bond is equals to its current value.
Therefore, The correct YTM is 6.82%
