Answer: single use plan
Explanation: In simple words,single use plan refers to the plan that is made for achieving a goal that will not repeat in future.
A program plan refers to the plan that an organisation makes with an objective of outlining the activities and events that the employees have to follow for achieving organisational goals.
Hence, from the above we can conclude that a program is a single use plan as it outlines activities for a specific project that needs to be performed.
Answer:
The amount of Uncollectible Account Expense reported on the income statement will be: $ 64,800
Explanation:
Jumpin Corporation
Percent of Sales method
Net credit sales $ 2 100 000,
Un collectible estimated 3%
Un collectibles Accounts = 3% of $ 2 100,000, = $ 63,000
Unadjusted Allowance for Un collectible Accounts $ 1, 800 Dr.
Required Adjustment = $ 64,800
The amount of Un collectible Account Expense reported on the income statement will be: $ 64,800
In the percent of sales method emphasis is laid on the matching principle in the income statement and amount of bad debts expense is subtracted from the accounts receivables.
Answer:
The correct answer is $907.76.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-
1¥ = 82.54$
1£ = 132.03¥
Convert pounds to us dollars= £ ÷ $ = £132.03 ÷ $82.54
= 1.60$ ÷ £
Mean, 1£ = 1.6$
She has £567.35 .
After converting the pound into the dollar, she will receive = £567.35 × $1.60
= $907.76
Hence, she receive $907.76 if she sells the pounds.
18a.
the y-intercept is the value of the function at x = 0.
so y-intercept is 5/8.
constant multiplier you can find by dividing a y-value by the previous y-value:
(y at x = 1) / (y at x = 0) is
(15 / 32) / (5 / 8)
but dividing by fraction is same as multiplying by reciprocal:
(15 / 32) · (8 / 5) ⇒ (15 · 8) / (32 · 5) ⇒ (3 · 1) / (4 · 1) = 3/4
(since 15 and 5 cancel to 3 and 1; 8 and 32 cancel to 1 and 4
the constant multiplier is 3/4 (you can confirm by repeat multiplying the y-values by 3/4 to get the next one)
18b.
y-intercept is 0.01
constant multplier:
(y at x = 1) / (y at x = 0) = 0.1 / 0.01 = 10
constant multiplier is 10
18c.
y = m/n(o/p)^x
y intercept is at x = 0:
y = m/n(o/p)^0
since anything to power of 0 is 1, we are left with
y = m/n
y-intercept is m/n.
The constant multiplier is o/p
i don't really have news papers or magazines around for that last bit, but if you could look for population data and such they can be exponential.
Answer:
$184,068.70
Explanation:
Given that
Annual payments = $31,000
Discount rate = 12%
Time period = 11 years
The computation of the present value is shown below:
= Annual payments × PVIFA factor for 11 years at 12%
= $31,000 × 5.9377
= $184,068.70
Simply we multiplied the annual payments with the PVIFA factor so that the present value could arrive
Refer to the PVIFA table
