Answer:
True
Explanation:
Executives under theory X appear to hold a negative perception of their employees, and believe they are inherently unconfident and hate work. As a consequence, they feel that staff mates have to be continuously pressured, praised or disciplined to ensure they accomplish their assignments.
The X methodology to analysis appears to have many divisions of managers and executives to supervise and direct staff. Power is never delegated, thus authority is often strongly centralised. Managers become more hierarchical and work aggressively to make things happen.
Answer:
A Journal entry for Brooks Incorporation on January 1, 2019 which is shown below
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
JOURNAL ENTRY FOR BROOKS INCORPORATION
Date General Journal Debit Credit
Jan 01 2019 Cash 90000
Notes Payable 90000
Thus
A Journal entry was recorded for Brooks Incorporation.
Here, the cash of $90,000 was recorded at the debit side of the Journal.
While the notes payable of $90,000 was also recorded on the credit side
Answer:
1) For the equipment that was sold, determine its original cost, its accumulated depreciation, and the cash received from the sale.
- original cost = $9,800
- accumulated depreciation = $1,020
- cash received = $5,980
2) Sanchez Company uses the indirect method for the Operating Activities section of the cash flow statement. What amount related to the sale would be added or subtracted in the computation of Net Cash Flows from Operating Activities?
- the loss on sale of equipment ($2,800) should be added to the cash flows from operating activities.
3) What amount related to the sale would be added or subtracted in the computation of Net Cash Flows from Investing Activities?
- the cash received ($5,980) should be added to the cash flow from investing activities
Explanation:
equipment cost = beginning equipment - ending equipment = $20,000 - $10,200 = $9,800
equipment's accumulated depreciation = beginning accumulated depreciation + depreciation expense - ending depreciation = $1,950 + $860 - $1,790 = $1,020
book value = $9,800 - $1,020 = $8,780
cash received = book value - loss = $8,780 - $2,800 = $5,980
In specifics, it depends on the written up sales contract that the first company arranged with the one that did the work. But personally, I'd blame the second company. Personal opinions don't matter when it comes to legal matters though.. sorry.
Answer and Explanation:
1. The preferred stock is non-cumulative, and in previous years, the company has not skipped any dividends.
Dividend paid to preferred shareholders = Shares × Par value preferred stock × Shares percentage
= 3300 × $103 × 7%
= $23,793
Dividend paid to common shareholders = Cash dividend - Dividend paid to preferred shareholders
= $123,500 - $23,793
= $99,707
2. The preferred stock is non-cumulative, and in both of the two previous years, the company did not pay a dividend.
Dividend paid to preferred shareholders = Shares × Par value preferred stock × Shares percentage
= 3300 × $103 × 7%
= $23,793
Dividend paid to common shareholders = Cash dividend - Dividend paid to preferred shareholders
= $123,500 - $23,793
= $99,707
3. The preferred stock is cumulative, and in both of the two previous years the company did not pay a dividend.
Dividend paid to preferred shareholders = Shares × Par value preferred stock × Shares percentage × Number of years
= 3,300 × $103 × 7% × 3
= $71,379
Dividend paid to common shareholders = Cash dividend - Dividend paid to preferred shareholders
= $123,500 - $71,379
= $52,121
