We can easily convert grams to pounds and find that 1 g of coffee beans is 0.00220462 pounds. Now we can multiply that value with 60 cups to find how many cups it makes.
We find that it makes 0.1322772 cups.
Then we know that 236.588 milliliters are in a cup. We multiply the value of the coffee available with 1 g of coffee beans (in cups - of course) and get the value the question asked :
0.1322772 * 236.588 milliliters
The answer is 31.2951981936 milliliters!
Hope this helps!
Answer:
Nothing further can be done with this topic. its simplified already
Step-by-step explanation:
71, 80, 82, 78, 80, 91, 107, 121, 125, 131, and 142. The variance of this data set is?
adoni [48]
Answer:
636.41818
Step-by-step explanation:
^2=∑=1(−⎯⎯⎯)2−1
^2=−1
^2=6364.181811−1
^2=6364.181810
^2=636.41818
I hope this helps :)
Answer:
Side A = 11
Side B = 16
Side C = 25
I added an image that shows what I did in case you need it.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The inequality that represents the situation is
where 
is the time in seconds
So, the time after which there will be less than 100 gallons of water is .
