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Katena32 [7]
2 years ago
7

Kim works for a clothing manufacturer as a dress designer. She travels to New York City to attend five days of fashion shows and

then spends three days sightseeing. Her expenses are as follows;Airfare $1,500Lodging (8 nights) $1,920Meals (8 days) $1,440Airport transportation $120Assume that lodging/meals are the same amount for the business and personal portion of the trip (e.g., $180 per day for meals).A) Presuming no reimbursement, how much can kim deduct as to the trip?B) Would the tax treatment of Kim's deduction differ if she was an independent contractor (rather than an employee)? Explain.
Business
1 answer:
Anuta_ua [19.1K]2 years ago
3 0

Answer and Explanation:

a. The computation of the amount deducted as if there is no reimbursement is

= Airfare charges + lodging for 5 days + meals for 5 days at 50% limit + full airport transportation

= $1,500 + $1,920 × 5 days ÷ 8 days + $1,440 × 5 days ÷ 8 days × 50% + $120

= $1,500 + $1,200 + $450 + $120

= $3,270

The unreimbursement travel expenses for an employee is 2% of adjusted gross income

b. The tax treatment in case of the independent contractor

= Airfare charges + lodging for 5 days + meals for 5 days at 50% limit + full airport transportation

= $1,500 + $1,920 × 5 days ÷ 8 days + $1,440 × 5 days ÷ 8 days × 50% + $120

= $1,500 + $1,200 + $450 + $120

= $3,270

It would remain the same in case of the independent contractor also.

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miss Akunina [59]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The liability still remains in force unless the lender agrees to forfeit the balance of $2,700. Legally, the lender can sue the borrower to enforce her right in the court and be justified because she has not waived the outstanding liability owed to her.

As in the above case, the lender Rayna has not ignored the balance owed to her by Billy despite receiving $300 as being a full payment marked on the cheque.

This means that the balance of $2,700 is still outstanding against Billy and must be paid to the lender-Rayna because she has not waived the liability.

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3 years ago
Daily Farm is a manufacturer of consumer goods such as foods, beverages, cleaning agents, and personal care products. It is expe
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Answer: <u><em>Addition to existing product line.</em></u>

<em>Since, the  new product is a spicier version of its tomato ketchup aimed at the baby boomer market. But still it lie in accordance with the existing product line.</em>

<em>The product line denotes the unit of affiliated commodities all marketed under a single brand name which is further is sold by the same organization. Establishments sell several product lines under several brand names, looking to differentiate each other.</em>

<u><em>Therefore, the correct option is (d).</em></u>

5 0
3 years ago
*ECONOMICS*
ira [324]
The equilibrium is the only price where quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied.
8 0
2 years ago
Crich Corporation uses direct labor-hours in its predetermined overhead rate. At the beginning of the year, the estimated direct
nadezda [96]

Answer:

The correct answer is option (c) $264 underapplied

Explanation:

Given data;

Direct labour hour = 22160

Total Manufacturing overhead cost= $585,024

Actual direct labor hour = 22150

Actual Manufacturing overhead cost = $585024

Calculating the Predetermine overhead rate using the formula;

Predetermined Overhead rate=Total Overhead Cost/Total Direct Labor Hour

Predetermined Overhead rate = $585024/22160

                                                      =$26.4 per labor hour

To determine the under-applied amount of overhead cost, we use the formula;

Under−Applied amount= Estimated Overhead Cost*Actual Overhead Cost

Substituting into the formula, we have

                          (22150*26.4)-585024

      Under applied  = $ 264

                       

8 0
2 years ago
Crane Company has 900 shares of 4%, $100 par cumulative preferred stock outstanding at December 31, 2018. No dividends have been
labwork [276]

Answer:

c) $7200

Explanation:

Preference dividends have preference when it comes to payment of dividends.

This means that we pay the Preference Stock holders their dividend (which is fixed) and there after the remainder is paid up to the Common Stockholders

Preference dividend = 900 shares x $100 x 4 % =  $3600

When Preference Stock is Cumulative, it means that all previous dividends in arrears have to be paid up before any current year distributions are made.

<u>2018</u>

Cumulative Preference dividend = $3600 (2017) + $3600 (2018) = $7200

therefore,

Dividends in arrears at December 31, 2018 total $7200

8 0
3 years ago
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