Answer:
b. 5.0%
Explanation:
For this question, we use the Capital Asset Pricing model (CAPM) formula that is shown below:
Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
where,
The Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return) is also known as the market risk premium
So, for stock A, the market risk premium is
10% = 5% + 1.0 × market risk premium
10 - 5% = 1.0 × market risk premium
5% ÷ 1.0 = market risk premium
So, the market risk premium is 5.0%
Given its current stock price the dividend yield would be 42.39%.
Given,
Digby is paying a dividend of $19. 67 (per share)
Dividend were raised by $3. 64
Dividend yield = Dividend per share / Market price per share.
As there is no share price given, I shall assume that the share price is $100. The new share price will be:
= 100 * (1 + $3. 64)
= $464
The Dividend yield would then become:
= 19.67 / 464
= 42.39%
The dividend yield will be calculated on the basis of the dividend per share divided by the market price per share and this will be calculated on the basis of the percentage.
To learn more about dividend yield here:
brainly.com/question/18687546
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The fixed factory overhead volume variance is $400 (unfavorable)
solution
Fixed Overhead Volume Variance = Applied Fixed Overhead – Budgeted Fixed Overhead
Applied Fixed Overhead
= 4,000 units ×2.5 hrs per unit×$0.80 = $8000
and
Budgeted Fixed Overhead =10,500 hrs × $0.80 = $8400

Fixed Overhead Volume Variance = $8000- $8400 = $400 (unfavorable)

There is an inflationary gap
I hope that helped