Answer:
5/32
Step-by-step explanation:
If a coin if flipped five times with four heads, then it has exactly one tail. The number of way to arrange four heads and one tail are as follows:
T H H H H
H T H H H
H H T H H
H H H T H
H H H H T
Essentially, there are five way because there are five "positions" where the tail could be.
Then, you need to find the total amount of possibilities for flipping a coin five times. Every time you flip it, there are two possibilities- heads and tails. Therefore, for five flips, the total amount of possibilities is
2x2x2x2x2 = 32
You know that
probability= # of desired outcome
----------------------------------
# of total outcomes
So the probablity is 5/32.
Answer:
1/4
GO GOOD LUCK
Step-by-step explanation:
U doing IXL? LOL
make me brainliest please
Just divide 50 by 12
4 1/6
Answer:
uh 52
Step-by-step explanation:
I say 52 cause like it sounds about reasonable
Answer:
- <u>No, he can get an output of 0 with the second machine (function B) but he cannot get an output of 0 with the first machine (function A).</u>
Explanation
The way each machine works is given by the expression (function) inside it.
<u>1) </u><em><u>Function A</u></em>
To get an output of 0 with the function y = x² + 3, you must solve the equation x² + 3 = 0.
Since x² is zero or positive for any real number, x² + 3 will never be less than 3 (the minimum value of x² + 3 is 3). So, it is not possible to get an output of 0 with the first machine.
<u>2) </u><em><u>Function B</u></em>
Solve 
So, he can get an output of 0 by using x = 4.